“Aim for the moon, even if you miss, you’ll land among the stars”
A COLLECTION OF DHBB COMPILED BY NGUYEN THANH CHIEN A1K21
“PRACTICE MAKES
PERFECT”
01.
CHUYÊN NGUYỄN TẤT THÀNH - YÊN BÁI
I. LISTENING Part 2: For questions 1-5, listen to a radio program about the perils of the online world. Listen and answer the true/false questions below. 1. Jenny's guest works for an e-mail company. 2. David says it's better not to mix work and personal e-mail accounts. 3. There are little software programs that travel the internet looking for e-mail addresses. 4. David advises people not to write e-mails in blue. 5. Fishing is a recent phenomenon. Your answer: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Part 3. Listen and answer the following questions using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. 1. How did the students do their practical sessions? 2. In the second semester how often did Kira work in a hospital? 3. How much full-time work did Kira do during the year? 4. Having completed the year, how does Kira feel? 5. In addition to the language, what do overseas students need to become familiar with?
LEXICO-GRAMMAR Part 1: Choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to each of the following questions and write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. 1. In these times of high unemployment everyone thought my giving up my job was________ madness. A. sheer B. steep C. high D. deep 2. With your qualifications, there will be no__________ of firms willing to employ you. A. want B. inadequacy C. deficiency D. shortage 3. The project will be kept__________ until the new manager comes. A. in order B. off and on C. on ice D. off the peck 4. It would set a bad_________ if we changed the rules just for one student. A. precaution B. infringement C. precedent D. manifestation 5. To make a profit, we’ll have to add a few thousand new customers to our list, which is __________. A. a piece of cake B. out of order C. out of our depth D. a tall order 6. Peace talks between the two countries__________, with neither side able to agree on terms. A. collapsed B. collaborated C. collared D. compromise 7. The problem with losing weight is that, if you succeed, all your clothes need to be_________. A. cut down B. taken in C. made down D. let down 8. Even though it had ___________ a great deal of support, the political party suffered a resounding defeat. A. flinched B. endowed C. downplayed D. rallied 9. Unconditional acceptance was the principle _________ his core philosophy.
A. snagging B. underpinning C. conspiring D. limping 10. As a _________, politicians and other public figures should avoid making direct statements that could be used against them. A. show of hands B. word of mouth C. rule of thumb D. change of heart Your answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. Part 3. Fill in each gap with one preposition. 1. Shrimp can trigger ________ an allergic reaction. 2. Help yourself to any drink you like. All are ________ the house. 3. I wish you wouldn’t do that. It really ticks me _________. 4. Recent research bears _________ the idea that women are safer drivers than men. 5. Tom’s parents were highly critical _________ his friends. Your answer: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Part 4: Write the correct form of each bracketed word in the Your answers: numbered space provided in the column in the right. British workers are among the (1) ________ (HAPPY) in Europe and the time so many of them spend commuting has been identified as a significant (2) _______ (CONTRIBUTE) factor. People who spend more than two hours a day travelling to and from work report increased (3) ________ (IRRITABLE) with colleagues, less efficiency in their work, and more problems in their personal lives. Some more (4) _______ (LIGHT) employers are beginning to realize that traditional work patterns will have to change if they want to retain a contented work force. (5) ________ (FLEX) working hours have been introduced by a number of companies who claim that this has led to greater job satisfaction and a noticeable increase in (6) ________ (PRODUCT). Another, more (7) ________ (REVOLUTE), approach has become feasible as a result of developments in information technology and a small growing number of people are now working from home. For most of us, however, the daily (8) ________ (MORALE) tedium of commuting remains unavoidable. As we sit or stand on a crowded, and (9) ________ (VARY) late, bus or train, we can only dream of a more leisurely lifestyle devoid of the misery commuting (10) ________ (INEVITABLE) brings.
1........................... 2........................... 3........................... 4........................... 5. ……................. 6........................... 7........................... 8. ……................. 9........................... 10.........................
READING Part 1. Read the texts below and decide which answer best fits each space. SOUND ADVICE FOR LANGUAGE LEARNERS A recent issue of a language learning magazine has consulted a number of experts in the (1) ______ of second language acquisition. Their advice may prove invaluable for those (2) ______ a language course. One suggestion is that you (3) ______ whether you are likely to be successful at learning a language. Did you enjoy studying languages at school, for example? Do you have enough time to learn
a language? The major (4) ______ will be your own time and effort. If proof of your level of proficiency is important you must make sure that the course on offer leads to a (5) ______ qualification. Also, be realistic in your (6) ______. If you don't set achievable aims you are more likely to give up. Do not be deceived (7) ______ thinking that the most expensive courses are the best. (8) ______ around to get the best possible value for money. You should also bear in mind that the quicker you learn a language the more quickly you forget it. Sandra Miller, a French teacher, tried to teach herself German by enrolling on a (9) ______ course. Already fluent in four languages and with a sound knowledge of teaching methodology her chances of (10) ______ progress were high. Three years on she remembers very little. She feels her biggest mistake was not to follow up her first experience. "I should have consolidated what I'd learn by continuing to study, even if it were by myself." 1. A. domain B. branch C. field D. area 2. A. wondering B. thinking C. looking D. considering 3. A. assess B. review C. balance D. survey 4. A. change B. cost C. price D. evaluation 5. A. recognized B. understood C. valued D. regarded 6. A. sights B. ends C. objects D. goals 7. A by B. about C. into D. in 8. A. Nose B. Push C. Run D. Shop 9. A. rapid B. crash C. quick D. fast 10. A. achieving B. doing C. gaining D. making Your answer: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. Part 2. Read the text and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word in each space. Smart toys If your kids easily become bored while watching the television or listening to music, a smart toy may help to maintain their interest. The toy, which is controlled by signals hidden in the sound, will respond to the TV or dance around (1) ______ the music. Ian Hosking, (2) ______ work at Scientific Generics on adapting spread spectrum technology has (3) ______ to the development of the technique of hiding control signals in sound, claims that the toy is actually (4) ______simple. “It needs little more than the (5) ______ to decode signals and to respond to them” The idea of controlling devices with sound is (6) ______ new. Some early television remote controls emitted ultrasonic bleeps, but they were unreliable. Traffic noise could (7) ______ off the television, and the ultrasound (8) ______ to upset pets. In the new system, coded control signals are spread over a wide range of frequencies, but they are (9) ______ faint to be audible on a normal domestic sound system, (10) ______ avoiding problems of interference. Your answer: 1. 6.
2. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.
Part 3. Read the extract taken from Darwin's book The Voyage of the Beagle then choose the best answer A, B, C or D to complete each statement. That large animals require a luxuriant vegetation, has been a general assumption which has passed from one work to another; but I do not hesitate to say that it is completely false, and that it has vitiated the reasoning of geologists on some points of great interest in the ancient history of the world. The prejudice has probably been derived from India, and the Indian islands, where troops of elephants, noble forests, and impenetrable jungles, are associated together in every one's mind. If, however, we refer to any work of travels through the southern parts of Africa, we shall find allusions in almost every page either to the desert character of the country, or to the numbers of large animals inhabiting it. The
same thing is rendered evident by the many engravings which have been published of various parts of the interior. Dr. Andrew Smith, who has lately succeeded in passing the Tropic of Capricorn, informs me that, taking into consideration the whole of the southern part of Africa, there can be no doubt of its being a sterile country. On the southern coasts there are some fine forests, but with these exceptions, the traveller may pass for days together through open plains, covered by a poor and scanty vegetation. Now, if we look to the animals inhabiting these wide plains, we shall find their numbers extraordinarily great, and their bulk immense. We must enumerate the elephant, three species of rhinoceros, the hippopotamus, the giraffe, the bos caffer, two zebras, two gnus, and several antelopes even larger than these latter animals. It may be supposed that although the species are numerous, the individuals of each kind are few. By the kindness of Dr. Smith, I am enabled to show that the case is very different. He informs me, that in lat. 24', in one day's march with the bullock-wagons, he saw, without wandering to any great distance on either side, between one hundred and one hundred and fifty rhinoceroses - the same day he saw several herds of giraffes, amounting together to nearly a hundred. At the distance of a little more than one hour's march from their place of encampment on the previous night, his party actually killed at one spot eight hippopotamuses, and saw many more. In this same river there were likewise crocodiles. Of course it was a case quite extraordinary, to see so many great animals crowded together, but it evidently proves that they must exist in great numbers. Dr.Smith describes the country passed through that day, as 'being thinly covered with grass, and bushes about four feet high, and still more thinly with mimosa-trees.' Besides these large animals, every one the least acquainted with the natural history of the Cape, has read of the herds of antelopes, which can be compared only with the flocks of migratory birds. The numbers indeed of the lion, panther, and hyena, and the multitude of birds of prey, plainly speak of the abundance of the smaller quadrupeds: one evening seven lions were counted at the same time prowling round Dr. Smith's encampment. As this able naturalist remarked to me, the carnage each day in Southern Africa must indeed be terrific! I confess it is truly surprising how such a number of animals can find support in a country producing so little food. The larger quadrupeds no doubt roam over wide tracts in search of it; and their food chiefly consists of underwood, which probably contains much nutriment in a small bulk. Dr.Smith also informs me that the vegetation has a rapid growth; no sooner is a part consumed, than its place is supplied by a fresh stock. There can be no doubt, however, that our ideas respecting the apparent amount of food necessary for the support of large quadrupeds are much exaggerated. The belief that where large quadrupeds exist, the vegetation must necessarily be luxuriant, is the more remarkable, because the converse is far from true. Mr.Burchell observed to me that when entering Brazil, nothing struck him more forcibly than the splendour of the South American vegetation contrasted with that of South Africa, together with the absence of all large quadrupeds. In his Travels, he has suggested that the comparison of the respective weights (if there were sufficient datA. of an equal number of the largest herbivorous quadrupeds of each country would be extremely curious. If we take on the one side, the elephants hippopotamus, giraffe, bos caffer, elan, five species of rhinoceros; and on the American side, two tapirs, the guanaco, three deer, the vicuna, peccari, capybara (after which we must choose from the monkeys to complete the number), and then place these two groups alongside each other it is not easy to conceive ranks more disproportionate in size. After the above facts, we are compelled to conclude, against anterior probability, that among the mammalia there exists no close relation between the bulk of the species, and the quantity of the vegetation, in the countries which they inhabit. (Adapted from: Voyage of the Beagle, Charles Darwin) 1. The author is primarily concerned with __________. A. discussing the relationship between the size of mammals and the nature of vegetation in their habitats B. contrasting ecological conditions in India and Africa C. proving the large animals do not require much food D. describing the size of animals in various parts of the world 2. According to the author, the ‘prejudice’ has lead to __________ . A. errors in the reasoning of biologists B. false ideas about animals in Africa
D. incorrect assumptions on the part of geologists 3. The author uses information provided by Dr. Smith to __________. A. supply information on quality and quantity of plant life in South Africa B. indicate the presence of large numbers of animals C. give evidence of numbers of carnivorous animals D. A, B and C are correct 4. The flocks of migratory birds are mentioned to __________. A. describe an aspect of the fauna of South B. indicate the abundance of wildlife Africa C. contrast with the habits of the antelope D. suggest the size of antelope herds 5. The ‘carnage’ refers to the __________. A. number of animals killed by hunters B. number of prey animals killed by predators C. number of people killed by lions D. amount of food eaten by all species 6. To account for the ‘surprising’ number of animals in a ‘country producing so little food’, Darwin suggests all of the following as partial explanations except __________. A. food requirements have been B. rapid regrowth of plant material overestimated C. large area for animals to forage in D. mainly carnivorous animals 7. The author makes his point by reference to all of the following except ___________. A. historical documents B. published illustrations C. private communications D. recorded observations 8. Darwin quotes Burchell’s observations in order to ___________. A. describe a region of great splendor B. counter a popular misconception C. account for a curious situation D. illustrate a well-known phenomenon 9. Darwin apparently regards Dr. Smith as __________. B. observant and A. reliable and imaginative excitable C. intrepid and competent D. foolhardy and tiresome 10. ‘Anterior probability’ refers to ___________. A. what might have been expected B. ideas of earlier explorers C. likelihood based on data from India D. hypotheses of other scientists C. doubt in the mind of the author
Your answers 1. 6.
2. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.
Part 4. Dirty river but clean water Floods can occur in rivers when the flow rate exceeds the capacity of the river channel, particularly at bends or meanders in the waterway. Floods often cause damage to homes and businesses if they are in the natural flood plains of rivers. While riverine flood damage can be eliminated by moving away from rivers and other bodies of water, people have traditionally lived and worked by rivers because the land is usually flat and fertile and because rivers provide easy travel and access to commerce and industry. A FIRE and flood are two of humanity’s worst nightmares. People have, therefore, always sought to control them. Forest fires are snuffed out quickly. The flow of rivers is regulated by weirs and dams. At least, that is how it used to be. But foresters have learned that forests need fires to clear out the brush and even to get seeds to germinate. And a similar revelation is now dawning on hydrologists. Rivers 一 and the ecosystems they support — need floods. That is why a man-made torrent has been surging down the Grand Canyon. By Thursday March 6th it was running at full throttle, which was expected to be sustained for 60 hours.
B Floods once raged through the canyon every year. Spring Snow from as far away as Wyoming would melt and swell the Colorado river to a flow that averaged around 1,500 cubic meters (50,000 cubic feet) a second. Every eight years or so, that figure rose to almost 3,000 cubic meters. These floods infused the river with sediment, carved its beaches and built its sandbars. C However, in the four decades since the building of the Glen Canyon dam, just upstream of the Grand Canyon, the only sediment that it has collected has come from tiny, undammed tributaries. Even that has not been much use as those tributaries are not powerful enough to distribute the sediment in an ecologically valuable way. D This lack of flooding has harmed local wildlife. The humpback chub, for example, thrived in the rust-red waters of the Colorado. Recently, though, its population has crashed. At first sight, it looked as if the reason was that the chub were being eaten by trout introduced for sport fishing in the mid-20th century. But trout and chub co-existed until the Glen Canyon dam was built, so something else is going on. Steve Gloss, of the United States’ Geological Survey (USGS), reckons that the chub’s decline is the result of their losing their most valuable natural defense, the Colorado’s rusty sediment. The chub were well adapted to the poor visibility created by the thick, red water which gave the river its name, and depended on it to hide from predators. Without the cloudy water the chub became vulnerable. E And the chub are not alone. In the years since the Glen Canyon dam was built, several species have vanished altogether. These include the Colorado pike-minnow, the razorback sucker and the roundtail chub. Meanwhile, aliens including fathead minnows, channel catfish and common carp, which would have been hard， put to survive in the savage waters of the undammed canyon, have moved in. F So flooding is the obvious answer. Unfortunately, it is easier said than done. Floods were sent down the Grand Canyon in 1996 and 2004 and the results were mixed. In 1996 the flood was allowed to go on too long. To start with, all seemed well. The floodwaters built up sandbanks and infused the river with sediment. Eventually, however, the continued flow washed most of the sediment out of the canyon. This problem was avoided in 2004 ，but unfortunately, on that occasion, the volume of sand available behind the dam was too low to rebuild the sandbanks. This time, the USGS is convinced that things will be better. The amount of sediment available is three times greater than it was in 2004. So if a flood is going to do some good, this is the time to unleash one. G Even so, it may turn out to be an empty gesture. At less than 1,200 cubic metres a second, this flood is smaller than even an average spring flood, let alone one of the mightier deluges of the past. Those glorious inundations moved massive quantities of sediment through the Grand Canyon, wiping the slate dirty, and making a muddy mess of silt and muck that would make modem river rafters cringe. Questions 1-6 Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage ? In boxes 1-6 on your answer sheet, write TRUE if the statement is true FALSE if the statement is false NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage 1. Damage caused by fire is worse than that caused by flood. 2. The flood peaks at almost 1500 cubic meters every eight years. 3. Contribution of sediments delivered by tributaries has little impact. 4. Decreasing number of chubs is always caused by introducing of trout since mid-20th. 5. It seemed that the artificial flood in 1996 had achieved success partly at the very beginning. 6. In fact, the yield of artificial flood water is smaller than an average natural flood at present. Questions 7-10 Complete the summary below. Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 8-13 on your answer sheet. The Eco- Impact of the Canyon Dam Floods are peopled nightmare. In the past, canyon was raged by flood every year. The snow from far Wyoming would melt in the season of spring and caused a flood flow peak in Colorado river. In the four decades after people built the Glen Canyon dam, it only could gather 7………………………. together from tiny, undammed tributaries. humpback chub population reduced, why? Then, several species disappeared including Colorado pike-minnow, 8 …………… and the round-tail chub. Meanwhile, some moved in such as fathead minnows, channel catfish and 9…………………The non-stopped flow leaded to the washing away of the sediment out of the
canyon, which poses great threat to the chubs because it has poor 10………………… away from predators. In addition, the volume of sand available behind the dam was too tow to rebuild the bars and flooding became more serious. Your answer: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13.
Part 5. You are going to read a magazine article. Seven paragraphs have been removed from the extract. Choose from the paragraphs A-H the one which fits each gap (1-7). There is one extra paragraph which you do not need to use. The Do-gooders The people who changed the morals of English society. In the last decades of the 18th century, the losers seriously outnumbered the winners. Those who were fortunate enough to occupy the upper levels of society, celebrated their good fortune by living a hedonistic life of gambling, parties and alcohol. It was their moral right, they felt, to exploit the weak and the poor. Few of them thought their lives should change, even fewer believed it could. 1 But the decisive turning point for moral reform was the French revolution. John Bowlder, a popular moralist of the time, blamed the destruction of French society on a moral crisis. Edmund Burke, a Whig statesman agreed. 'When your fountain is choked up and polluted,' he wrote, 'the stream will not run long or clear.' If the English society did not reform, ruin would surely follow 2 Englishmen were deeply afraid that the immorality of France would invade England. Taking advantage of this, Burke was able to gain considerable support by insisting that the French did not have the moral qualifications to be a civilised nation. He pronounced 'Better this island should be sunk to the bottom of the sea that than... it should not be a country of religion and morals.' 3 Sobering though these messages were, the aristocracy of the time was open to such reforms, not least due to fear. France's attempt to destroy their nobility did much to encourage the upper classes to examine and re-evaluate their own behaviour. Added to this was the arrival of French noble émigrés to British shores. As these people were dependent on the charity of the British aristocracy, it became paramount to amend morals and suppress all vices in order to uphold the state. 4 Whether the vices of the rich and titled stopped or were merely cloaked is open to question. But it is clear that by the turn of the century, a more circ*mspect society had emerged. Styles of dress became more moderate, and the former adornments of swords, buckles and powdered hair were no longer seen. There was a profusion of moral didactic literature available. Public hangings ceased and riots became much rarer. 5 One such person was Thomas Wackley who in 1823 founded a medical journal called 'the Lancet'. At this time, Medicine was still a profession reserved for the rich, and access to knowledge was impossible for the common man. The Lancet shone a bright light on the questionable practices undertaken in medicine and particularly in surgery, and finally led to improved standards of care. 6 How though did changes at the top affect the people at the bottom of the societal hierarchy? Not all reformers concerned themselves which changes at the authoritative and governmental levels. Others concentrated on improving the lives and morals of the poor. In the midst of the industrial revolution, the poorest in society were in dire straits. Many lived in slums and sanitation was poor. No-one wanted the responsibility of improvement. 7
Could local authorities impose such measures today? Probably not. Even so, the legacy of the moral reform of the late 1800s and 1900s lives on today. Because of it, the British have come to expect a system which is competent, fair to all and free from corruption. Nowadays everyone has a right to a home, access to education, and protection at work and in hospital. This is all down to the men and women who did not just observe society's ills from a distance, but who dared to take steps to change it. Paragraphs A But a moral makeover was on the horizon, and one of the first people to promote it was William Wilberforce, better known for his efforts in abolishing the slave trade. Writing to a friend, Lord Muncaster, he stated that 'the universal corruption and profligacy of the times...taking its rise amongst the rich and luxurious has now ... spread its destructive poison through the whole body of the people.' B But one woman, Octavia Hill, was willing to step up to the mark. Hill, despite serious opposition by the men who still dominated English society, succeeded in opening a number of housing facilities for the poor. But, recognising the weaknesses of a charity-dependent culture, Hill enforced high moral standards, strict measures in hygiene and cleanliness upon her tenants, and, in order to promote a culture of industry, made them work for any financial handouts. C At first, moralists did not look for some tangible end to moral behaviour. They concerned themselves with the spiritual salvation of the rich and titled members of society, believing that the moral tone set by the higher ranks would influence the lower orders. For example, Samuel Parr, preaching at London's St Paul's Cathedral, said 'If the rich man...abandons himself to sloth and all the vices which sloth generates, he corrupts by his example. He permits...his immediate attendants to be, like him, idle and profligate.' D In time, the favour for improved morals strayed beyond personal behaviour and towards a new governance. People called for a tightening of existing laws which had formerly been enforced only laxly. Gambling, duelling, swearing, prostitution, p*rnography and adultery laws were more strictly upheld to the extent that several fashionable ladies were fined fifty pounds each for gambling in a private residence. E So far, however, circ*mspection in the upper classes had done little to improve the lives of those in the lower classes. But that was to change. Against a backdrop of the moral high ground, faults in the system started to stand out. One by one, people started to question the morality of those in authority. F The attitudes of the upper classes became increasingly critical during the latter part of the eighteenth century. In 1768, the Lord of the Treasury was perfectly at ease to introduce his mistress to the Queen, but a generation later, such behaviour would have been unacceptable. Such attitudes are also seen in the diaries of Samuel Pepys, who, in 1793 rambles without criticism about his peer's many mistresses. A few years later, his tone had become infinitely more critical. G Similar developments occurred in the Civil Service. Civil servants were generally employed as a result of nepotism or acquaintance, and more often than not took advantage of their power to provide for themselves at the expense of the public. Charles Trevelyan, an official at the London Treasury, realised the weaknesses in the system and proposed that all civil servants were employed as a result of entrance examinations, thus creating a system which was politically independent and consisted of people who were genuinely able to do the job. H These prophecies roused a little agitation when first published in 1790. But it was the events in 1792-93 which shocked England into action. Over in France, insurrection had led to war and
massacre. The King and Queen had been tried and executed. France was now regarded as completely immoral and uncivilized, a country where vice and irreligion reigned. Your answer: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
Part 2. The diagrams below show the students’ family economic background, the total number of students at university in the UK, the government spending on each student. Write a report for university lecturer describing the information below.
02.
CHUYÊN THÁI BÌNH
I. LISTENING: Part 1: You will hear an interview with an author called Rachel White. For questions 1 – 5, choose the answer A, B, C or D which fits best according to what you hear. 1. What does Rachel particularly recall about her school days? A She was only really interested in the subject of literature. B She was aware that she was brighter than her classmates C She was given preferential treatment by a certain teacher. D She disliked being considered hard working by her peers. 2. Which of the following added to Rachel's negative feelings about her essay?
A It was not her own work. B Her classmates were critical of it. C Some of the content was misleading. D There was an insufficient amount of material. 3. According to Rachel, what attitude do many people have towards Jane Austen 's books? A They lose interest in them at an early age. B They read them because they feel they should. C They believe they suit a certain type of personality. D They feel they should be read in certain situations. 4. Why did Rachel write the essay “Literature and the Young Mind”? A. in order to express a commonly-held view B. in order to encourage young people to read literature C. because she wanted to express her gratitude to writers like Austen D. because she wanted to recommend certain writers to young readers 5. When discussing her own writing, Rachel highlights its A. contemporary relevance.
B. emotional content.
C. standard development.
D. essential complexity.
Part 2: Listen to the conversation and decide whether these statements are true T or false F. 6. The film speaker A likes is a romance based on a book. 7. In the film that speaker B likes, Javier Bardem is really an anti-hero. 8. In Pride and Prejudice, Elizabeth thinks Mr Darcy is obstinate. 9. Speaker D thinks that in The Matrix, Laurence Fishburne acts very badly. 10. “Let the right one in” is a soppy film. Part 3: Listen to the following recording and answer the following questions. WRITE NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. 11. What part of the earth will the company deliver Internet access? ________________________________________________ 12. How did the company CEO feel about the project? ______________________________________________ 13. What will the company connect besides boats and planes? _____________________________________________ 14. What is China currently testing? _________________________________________ 15. What is Russia worried the network might be used for? _______________________________________________
II. LEXICO & GRAMMAR Part 1: Choose the best option to complete each of the following questions. 26. I’m sure there’s a definite __________ of envy in her nasty comments about you. A. factor
B. ingredient
C. component
D. element
27. In the ___________ of just two days, her whole life changed. A. interval
B. space
C. spell
D. duration
28. The thieves took ___________ when they heard a police car approaching. A. retreat
B. flight
C. escape
D. getaway
29. Afterwards, when I ___________ on the events of that day, I could hardly believe what had happened. A. contemplated
B. reviewed
C. reflected
D. weighed
30. There was a huge ___________ of applause when the star of the show appeared. A. bout
B. stint
C. round
D. spate
31. As he accepted the award, his voice ___________ with emotion. A. quivered
B. flinched
C. cringed
D. winced
32. Rose has always had a ___________ interest in matters to do with the environment. A. fierce
B. sharp
C. grave
D. keen
33. By the ___________ of it, the economy will improve over the next few months. A. face
B. impression
C. evidence
D. look
34. Tim and Alan have never got on well and there is a lot of ___________ feeling between them. A. cross
B. adverse
C. ill
D. vile
35. Peter has now arrived late for work three days in a ___________ . A. line
B. sequence
C. series
D. row
Part 3: Fill in the gaps with suitables particles. 41. I’m afraid that your party doesn’t quite tie _____ ______ our arrangements. 42. I know you are unhappy, but don’t take it _____ ______ me. 43. The president warned that terrorists will be hunted _____ . 44. Have you settled _____ a name for the baby yet? 45. We were set _____ by a a gang of hooligans. Part 4: Write the correct form of each bracketed word in the numbdered space provided in the column on the right.
Perhaps the most vivid illustration of our gift for recognition is the magic 46. ........................... of caricature—the fact that the sparest cartoon of a familiar face, even a single line dashed off in two seconds, can be identified by our brains in an
47.............................
instant. It’s often said that a good caricature looks more like a person than 48. .......................... the person himself. As it happens, this notion, 46. ______ (INTUITION)
49. ..........................
though it may sound, is actually supported by research. In the field of vision science, there’s even a term for this seeming paradox—the 50. ........................... caricature effect—a phrase that hints at how our brains 47. ______ 51. ........................... (PERCEPTION) faces as much as perceive them. 52. ........................... Human faces are all built pretty much the same: two eyes above a nose that’s above a mouth, the features 48. ______ (VARIETY) from person to 53. ........................... person generally by mere millimeters. So what our brains look for,
54. ...........................
according to vision scientists, are the 49. ______ (LIE) features—those 50. ______ (CHARACTER) that deviate most from the ideal face we 55. ........................... carry around in our heads, the running average of every visage we’ve ever seen. We code each new face we encounter not in absolute terms but in the several ways it differs 51. ______ (MARK) from the mean. In other words,
to
beat
what
vision
scientists
call
the
52.
______
(hom*oGENEOUS) problem, we 53. ______ (ACCENT) what’s most important for recognition and largely ignore what isn’t. Our perception fixates on the 54. ______ (TURN) nose, rendering it more porcine, the sunken eyes or the 55. ______ (FLESH)
cheeks, making them loom
larger. To better identify and remember people, we turn them into caricatures. III. READING. Part 1: Choose the best option to fill in each blank. No matter how serious the sporting event, once an animal becomes (56) ____ , it will almost certainly steal the (57) ____. In November 1985, a football match between Newcastle Town and Chell Heath (58) ____ an unexpected turn after a terrier dog called Susie decided to make a contribution to the game. Newcastle Town were leading 1-0. A Chell Heath player was (59) ____ a great chance of (60) ____ , with only the goalkeeper standing between him and the goal, but the shot (61) ____ wide. At that moment, Susie the dog came sprinting up the pitch, leaped up and headed the ball past the goalkeeper and neatly into the net. To the amazement of the crowd and (62) ____ disbelief of the Newcastle players, the referee (63) ____ a goal.
Fortunately, Newcastle Town went on to win by three goals to two, as (64) ____ speaking the goal shouldn't have been allowed. Sadly. before local football scouts had a chance to (65) ____ her up and turn her into a star, Susie had disappeared back into the crowd, never to be seen at the stadium again. 56. A. absorbed
B. involved
C. obsessed
D. averted
57. A highlight
B limelight
C footlight
D spotlight
58. A took
B made
C got
D gave
59. A out for
B up against
C away on
D in with
60. A. equalising
B scoring
C. dedeating
D. forwarding
61. A. came
B. went
C. got
D. became
62. A entire
B whole
C utter
D full
63. A. realised
B. disallowed
C. awarded
D. conceded
64 A truly
B rightly
C precisely
D strictly
65 A sign
B enroll
C join
D enlist
Part 2: Fill in each blank in the following passage with ONE suitable word. It is nearly impossible in our post-industrial society to conceive of a world without wheels. From clocks to huge machinery and from cars to computer disks, (1) _______ employs cogs, wheels or other types of cylindrical components that spin on an axis. (2) _______ the wheel took a relatively long time to be invented and several civilizations reached a relatively high level of technological sophistication (3) _______ it. The most likely explanation is that neither terrain nor climate suited the wheel. Until 10,000 BC, much of the world was (4) _______ the grip of the last vestiges of the Ice Age. (5) _______ was not under ice sheet was covered by desert, jungle or bog - conditions obviously unsuited for something like the wheel. Most experts agree that the wheel evolved from the fact that Neolithic man was familiar with moving heavy objects by putting a roller, such as a tree trunk, under the load. (6) _______ techniques were used to move the huge stone blocks to build the pyramids around 2980 BC and probably Stonehenge, which dates (7) _______ to around 2000 BC. (8) _______ technique for moving large, heavy objects was to place them on sledges and to put the sledges on rollers. In time, it is likely that the sledge wore grooves into the rollers (9) _______ the result that ancient man had a ratio – a small turn of the inner edge of the worn groove generated a larger turn of the outer edge of the roller. The next (10) _______ final step in the invention of the wheel was to reduce the weight of the roller by cutting away the wood between the grooves, in thhis way creating an axle with a wheel at each end. At last man could better indulge his passions for travel, speed and movement. Part 3: Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each question. Smart Energy
The next few decades will see great changes in the way energy is supplied and used. In some major oil producing nations, 'peak oil' has already been reached, and there are increasing fears of global warming. Consequently, many countries are focusing on the switch to a low carbon economy. This transition will lead to major changes in the supply and use of electricity. [A] Firstly, there will be an increase in overall demand, as consumers switch from oil and gas to electricity to power their homes and vehicles. [B] Secondly, there will be an increase in power generation, not only in terms of how much is generated, but also how it is generated, as there is growing electricity generation from renewable sources. [C] To meet these challenges, countries are investing in Smart Grid technology. [D] This system aims to provide the electricity industry with a better understanding of power generation and demand, and to use this information to create a more efficient power network. Smart Grid technology basically involves the application of a computer system to the electricity network. The computer system can be used to collect information about supply and demand and improve engineer's ability to manage the system. With better information about electricity demand, the network will be able to increase the amount of electricity delivered per unit generated, leading to potential reductions in fuel needs and carbon emissions. Moreover, the computer system will assist in reducing operational and maintenance costs. Smart Grid technology offers benefits to the consumer too. They will be able to collect real-time information on their energy use for each appliance. Varying tariffs throughout the day will give customers the incentive to use appliances at times when supply greatly exceeds demand, leading to great reductions in bills. For example, they may use their washing machines at night. Smart meters can also be connected to the internet or telephone system, allowing customers to switch appliances on or off remotely. Furthermore, if houses are fitted with the apparatus to generate their own power, appliances can be set to run directly from on-site power source, and any excess can be sold to the grid. With these changes comes a range of challenges. The first involves managing the supply and demand. Sources of renewable energy, such as wind, wave and solar, are notoriously unpredictable, and nuclear power, which is also set to increase as nations switch to alternative energy sources, is inflexible. With oil and gas, it is relatively simple to increase the supply of energy to match the increasing demand during peak times of the day or year. With alternative sources, this is far more difficult, and may lead to blackouts or system collapse. Potential solutions include investigating new and efficient ways to store energy and encouraging consumers to use electricity at off-peak times. A second problem is the fact that many renewable power generation sources are located in remote areas, such as windy uplands and coastal regions, where there is currently a lack of electrical infrastructure. New infrastructures therefore must be built. Thankfully, with improved smart technology, this can be done more efficiently by reducing the reinforcement or construction costs. Although Smart Technology is still in its infancy, pilot schemes to promote and test it are already underway. Consumers are currently testing the new smart meters which can be used in their
homes to manage electricity use. There are also a number of demonstrations being planned to show how the smart technology could practically work, and trials are in place to test the new electrical infrastructure. It is likely that technology will be added in 'layers', starting with 'quick win' methods which will provide initial carbon savings, to be followed by more advanced systems at a later date. Cities are prime candidates for investment into smart energy, due to the high population density and high energy use. It is here where Smart Technology is likely to be promoted first, utilising a range of sustainable power sources, transport solutions and an infrastructure for charging electrically powered vehicles. The infrastructure is already changing fast. By the year 2050, changes in the energy supply will have transformed our homes, our roads and our behaviour. Top of Form 1. According to paragraph 1, what has happened in some oil producing countries? A. They are unwilling to sell their oil any more. B. They are not producing as much oil as they used to. C. The supply of oil is unpredictable. D. Global warming is more sever here than in other countries. 2. Where in paragraph 1 can the following sentence be placed? There is also likely more electricity generation centres, as households and communities take up the opportunity to install photovoltaic cells and small scale wind turbines. A
B
C
D
3. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of Smart Grid technology to consumers? A. It can reduce their electricity bills. B. It can tell them how much energy each appliance is using. C. It can allow them to turn appliances on and off when they are not at home. D. It can reduce the amount of energy needed to power appliances. 4. According to paragraph 4, what is the problem with using renewable sources of power? A. They do not provide much energy. B. They often cause system failure and blackouts. C. They do not supply a continuous flow of energy. D .They can't be used at off-peak times. 5. In paragraph 5, what can be inferred about cities in the future? A. More people will be living in cities in the future than nowadays. B. People in cities will be using cars and buses powered by electricity. C. All buildings will generate their own electricity. D. Smart Grid technology will only be available in cities. 6. The word 'remote' in paragraph 5 could be best replace by:
A. isolated
B. crowded
C. attractive
D. alone
7. The word 'underway' in paragraph 6 is closest in meaning to: A. permanent
B. complete
C. beneficial
D. in progress
8. What is the main idea of the final paragraph? (paragraph 6). A. To describe who will benefit from Smart Grid technology first. B. To outline the advantages of Smart Grid technology. C. To summarise the main ideas in the previous paragraphs. D. To describe how, where and when Smart Technology will be introduced. 9. In paragraph 6, what can be inferred about the introduction of Smart Grid Technology? A. The technologies which produce most benefits will be introduced first. B. The cheapest technologies will be introduced first. C. The technologies which are most difficult to put into place will be introduced first. D. Technologically advanced systems will be introduced first. 10. The word “infancy” in paragraph 6 is closest in meaning to: A. completion
B. beginning
C. old age
D. malnutrition
Part 4: Read the following passage and answer the questions.
ALTERNATIVE FARMING METHODS IN OREGON Onion growers in eastern Oregon are adopting a system that saves water and keeps topsoil in place, while producing the highest quality “super colossal” onions. Pear growers in southern Oregon have reduced their use of some of the most toxic pesticides by up to two-thirds, and are still producing top-quality pears. Range managers throughout the state have controlled the poisonous weed tansy ragwort with insect predators and saved the Oregon livestock industry up to $4.8 million a year. These are some of the results Oregon growers have achieved in collaboration with Oregon State University (OSU) researchers as they test new farming methods including integrated pest management (IPM). Nationwide, however, IPM has not delivered results comparable to those in Oregon. A recent U.S General Accounting Office (GAO) report indicates that while integrated pest management can result in dramatically reduced pesticide use, the federal government has been lacking in effectively promoting that goal and implementing IPM. Farmers also blame the government for not making the new options of pest management attractive. “Wholesale changes in the way that farmers control the pests on their farms is an expensive business.” Tony Brown, of the National Farmers Association says. “If the farmers are given tax breaks to offset the expenditure, then they would willingly accept the new practices.” The report goes on to note that even though the use of the riskiest pesticides has declined nationwide, they still make up more than 40 percent of all pesticides used today; and national pesticide use has risen by 40 million kilograms since 1992. “Our food supply remains the safest and highest quality on Earth but we continue to overdose our farmland with powerful and toxic pesticides and to
under-use the safe and effective alternatives,” charged Patrick Leahy, who commissioned the report. Green action groups disagree about the safety issue. “There is no way that habitual consumption of foodstuffs grown using toxic chemicals of the nature found on today’s farms can be healthy for consumers,” noted Bill Bowler, spokesman for Green Action, one of many lobbyists interested in this issue. The GAO report singles out Oregon’s apple and pear producers who have used the new IPM techniques with growing success. Although Oregon is clearly ahead of the nation, scientists at OSU are taking the Government Accounting Office criticisms seriously. “We must continue to develop effective alternative practices that will reduce environmental hazards and produce high quality products,” said Paul Jepson, a professor of entomology at OSU and new director of OSU’s Integrated Plant Protection Centre (IPPC). The IPPC brings together scientists from OSU’s Agricultural Experiment Station, OSU Extension service, the U.S. Department of Agriculture and Oregon farmers to help develop agricultural systems that will save water and soil, and reduce pesticides. In response to the GAO report, the Centre is putting even more emphasis on integrating research and farming practices to improve Oregon agriculture environmentally and economically. “The GAO report criticizes agencies for not clearly communicating the goals of IPM,” said Jepson. “Our challenge is to greatly improve the communication to and from growers, to learn what works and what doesn’t. The work coming from OSU researchers must be adopted in the field and not simply languish in scientific journals.” In Oregon, growers and scientists are working together to instigate new practices. For example, a few years ago scientists at OSU’s Malheur Experiment Station began testing a new drip irrigation system to replace old ditches that wasted water and washed soil and fertilizer into streams. The new system cut water and fertilizer use by half, kept topsoil in place and protected water quality. In addition, the new system produced crops of very large onions, rated “super colossal” and highly valued by the restaurant industry and food processors. Art Pimms, one of the researchers at Malheur comments: “Growers are finding that when they adopt more environmentally benign practices, they can have excellent results. The new practices benefit the environment and give the growers their success.” OSU researchers in Malheur next tested straw mulch and found that it successfully held soil in place and kept the ground moist with less irrigation. In addition, and unexpectedly, the scientists found that the mulched soil created a home for beneficial beetles and spiders that prey on onion thrips – a notorious pest in commercial onion fields – a discovery that could reduce the need for pesticides. “I would never have believed that we could replace the artificial pest controls that we had before and still keep our good results,” commented Steve Black, a commercial onion farmer in Oregon, “but instead we have actually surpassed expectations.”
OSU researchers throughout the state have been working to reduce dependence on broad-spectrum chemical sprays that are toxic to many kind of organisms, including humans. “Consumers are rightly putting more and more pressure on the industry to change its reliance on chemical pesticides, but they still want a picture-perfect product,” said Rick Hilton, entomologist at OSU’s Southern Oregon Research and Extension Centre, where researchers help pear growers reduce the need for highly toxic pesticides. Picture perfect pears are an important product in Oregon and traditionally they have required lots of chemicals. In recent years, the industry has faced stiff competition from overseas producers, so any new methods that growers adopt must make sense economically as well as environmentally. Hilton is testing a growth regulator that interferes with the molting of codling moth larvae. Another study used pheromone dispensers to disrupt codling moth mating. These and other methods of integrated pest management have allowed pear growers to reduce their use of organophosphates by two-thirds and reduce all other synthetic pesticides by even more and still produce top-quality pears. These and other studies around the state are part of the effort of the IPPC to find alternative farming practices that benefit both the economy and the environment. Questions 78 – 85: Match the views (78 – 85) with the people listed below. 78. There is a double advantage to the new techniques. 79. Expectations of end users of agricultural products affect the products. 80. The work on developing these alternative techniques is not finished. 81. Eating food that has had chemicals used in its production is dangerous to our health. 82. Changing current farming methods is not a cheap process. 83. Results have exceeded anticipations. 84. The research done should be translated into practical projects. 85. The U.S. produces the best food in the world. TB
Tony Brown
PL
Patrick Leahy
BB
Bill Bowler
PJ
Paul Jepson
AP
Art Pimms
SB
Steve Black
RH
Rick Hilton
Questions 86 - 90 Read the passage about alternative farming methods in Oregon again and look at the statements below.
In boxes 86 - 90 write: TRUE FALSE NOT GIVEN
if the statement is true if the statement is false if the information is not given in the advertisem*nt
86. Integrated Pest Management has generally been regarded as a success in the US. 87. Oregon farmers of apples and pears have been promoted as successful examples of Integrated Pest Management. 88. The IPPC uses scientists from different organisations. 89. Straw mulch experiments produced unplanned benefits. 90. The apple industry is now facing a lot of competition from abroad. Part 5: Read throught the following text and choose from the list A- the best sentence to fit each blank. What do we mean by being ‘talented’ or ‘gifted’? The most obvious way is to look at the work someone does and if they are capable of significant success, label them as talented. The purely quantitative route - ‘percentage definition’ - looks not at individuals, but at simple percentages, such as the top five per cent of the population, and labels them - by definition - as gifted. (1) ………………….. The IQ test has been eclipsed in turn. Most people studying intelligence and creativity in the new millennium now prefer a broader definition, using a multifaceted approach where talents in many areas are recognised rather than purely concentrating on academic achievement. (2)………………….. Mental dysfunction - such as schizophrenia - can, so is an efficient mental capacity passed on from parent to child? Animal experiments throw some light on this question, and on the whole area of whether it is genetics, the environment or a combination of the two that allows for intelligence and creative ability. (3) ……………..If these are brought up in normal conditions and then mn through a maze to reach a food goal, the ‘bright’ strain make far fewer wrong turns that the ‘dull’ ones. But if the environment is made dull and boring the number of errors becomes equal. Return the rats to an exciting maze and the discrepancy returns as before - but is much smaller. In other words, a dull rat in a stimulating environment will almost do as well as a bright rat who is bored in a normal one. (4) …………… Evidence now exists that most young children, if given enough opportunities and encouragement, are able to achieve significant and sustainable levels of academic or sporting prowess. (5) ………….. They may also talk earlier, and this, in turn, breeds parental interest. This can sometimes cause problems with other siblings who may feel jealous even though they themselves may be bright. Their creative talents may be undervalued and so never come to fruition. Two themes seem to run through famously creative families as a result. (6) …………..Individual differences were
encouraged, and friendly sibling rivalry was not seen as a particular problem. If the father is, say, a famous actor, there is no undue pressure for his children to follow him onto the boards, but instead, their chosen interests are encouraged. (7) …………………. Martin Sheen was the seventh of ten children born to a Spanish immigrant father and an Irish mother. (8) ……………… His acting successes in films such as Badlands and Apocalypse Now made him one of the most highly-regarded actors of the 1970s. Three sons - Emilio Estevez, Ramon Estevez and Charlie Sheen - have followed him into the profession as a consequence of being inspired by his motivation and enthusiasm. A stream seems to run through creative families. Such children are not necessarily smothered with love by their parents. (9) ……………..They may see from their parents that it takes time and dedication to be master of a craft, and so are in less of a hurry to achieve for themselves once they start to work. (10) ……………………………This last point - luck - is often not mentioned where talent is concerned but plays an undoubted part. Mozart, considered by many to be the finest composer of all time, was lucky to be living in an age that encouraged the writing of music. He was brought up surrounded by it, his father was a musician who encouraged him to the point of giving up his job to promote his child genius, and he learnt musical composition with frightening speed - the speed of a genius. Mozart himself simply wanted to create the finest music ever written but did not necessarily view himself as a genius - he could write sublime music at will, and so often preferred to lead a hedonistic lifestyle that he found more exciting than writing music to order. A. The first is that the parents were able to identify the talents of each child, and nurture and encourage these accordingly but in an even-handed manner. B. Despite intense parental disapproval he turned his back on entrance exams to university and borrowed cash from a local priest to start a fledgling acting career. C. If we are therefore assuming that talented, creative or gifted individuals may need to be assessed across a range of abilities, does this mean intelligence can run in families as a genetic or inherited tendency? D. This principle applies to humans too - someone may be born with innate intelligence, but their environment probably has the final say over whether they become creative or even a genius. E. They feel loved and wanted, and are secure in their home, but are often more surrounded by an atmosphere of work and where following a calling appears to be important. F. This definition has fallen from favour, eclipsed by the advent of IQ tests, favoured by luminaries such as Professor Hans Eysenck, where a series of written or verbal tests of general intelligence leads to a score of intelligence.
G. Bright or creative children are often physically very active at the same time, and so may receive more parental attention as a result - almost by default - in order to ensure their safety. They may also talk earlier, and this, in turn, breeds parental interest. H. There need not even by any obvious talent in such a family since there always needs to be someone who sets the family career in motion, as in the case of the Sheen acting dynasty. I. The generation of creativity is complex: it is a mixture of genetics, the environment, parental teaching and luck that determines how successful or talented family members are. J. Different strains of rats show great differences in intelligence or ‘rat reasoning’. IV. WRITING: Part 2: The graph below shows the different modes of transport used to travel to and from work in one European city in 1960, 1980 and 2000. Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make comparisons where relevant. You should write about 150 words.
03
. CHUYÊN NGUYỄN TRÃI - HẢI DƯƠNG
I. You will hear an interview with a British politician. For questions 1-5, choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. (10pts) 1. Susan says that she particularly dislikes politicians who A. pretend to feel strongly about issues. B. disguise their real beliefs. C. are indecisive about issues.
D. openly treat voters with contempt.
2. When she had her disagreement with Martin Jones, Susan A. decided that personal ambition was not her main motivation. B. began to feel that she had failed as a politician. C. felt that her point of view was not correctly understood. D. regretted the effect it would have on her future in politics. 3. What was Susan's attitude to involving colleagues in the controversy? A. She realized that they were unlikely to share her point of view. B. She was reluctant to do so because she was not sure she was right. C. She thought that involving colleagues would make things worse. D. She felt they should decide for themselves whether she had a point, 4. When asked whether her opinion of her colleagues has changed, Susan says that A. their reaction has made her reluctant to get into the same position again. B. she prefers those who criticized her to those who kept theft opinions private.
C. there may come a time when she does not publicly support them on issues. D. politicians place too much emphasis on their personal opinions of each other. 5. Susan thinks she was considered mad by some other politicians because A. her behaviour was out of character.
B. they found her intimidating.
C. she did not conform.
D. her unselfishness shamed them.
II. Listen to an extract from a radio programme about the climber Annabelle Bond, and say whether sentences 1-5 are true or false. (10 points) 1. It took her about a year to climb the seven mountains. 2. Only four men have climbed the peaks faster than Annabelle. 3. Annabelle always wanted to be a marathon runner. 4. She raised £8,500 for a cancer charity. 5. She plans to do more climbing in the near future. III. You will hear a guide speaking to tourists who are visiting some Romans remains. Listen and give short answers to the questions. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER taken from the recording. (10 points) 1. When did the Romans first come to the Corbridge area? ……………………………………………………………………… 2. Why did the Romans built a series of forts and strongholds? ……………………………………………………………………… 3. What did people begin to search for in 1201? ……………………………………………………………………… 4. How often have archaeological digs taken place since 1934? ……………………………………………………………………… 5. What are the two things that visitors should pay attention to? ……………………………………………………………………… SECTION 2: LEXICO - GRAMMAR (30 points) I. Choose the word or phrase that best fits the gap in each sentence (10 points) 1.As we entered the farmyard we were met with a(n) ….. of animal sounds. A.alacrity
B. cacophony
C. depravity
D. intermingling
2.Only when she has realized that the only thing standing in her way is her …. Llfestyle can she make progress in her career. A.Sycophant
B. Sybaritic
C. Unwieldy
D. Inbreeding
3.He is a(n) …. young man who shows no respect for gods A.impious
B. ludicrous
C. precipitous
D. capacious
4. Mark decided to follow in his father’s …………… and become a dentist. A. advice
B. way
C. road
D. footsteps
5. They’re having serious problems. Their relationship is on the …………... A. cliffs
B. rocks
C. stones
D. grass
6. In his …………... days he was quite dandy. A. salad
B. green
C. fruit
D. vegetable
7. My manager is a typical working mother who has to deal with …………... activities every day. A. miscellaneous
B. multifarious
C. many
D. manifold
8. Naylor was one of those men who …………...
to the challenge of danger.
A.raise
D. arise
B. rise
C. ride
9.Like more and more women, she believes marriage would …………... her style. A.restricts
B. impedes
C. obstructs
D. cramps
10. He's not nearly such a good writer as he's …………... up to be. A.creased
B. cracked
C. lined
D. valued
III. Fill in each blank with an appropriate preposition or particle. (5 points) 1.She kept her emotions tightly reined ……………….. . 2. It rests ……………….. management to justify their actions. 3. There have been concerns as to why the Board didn't act …….. a recommended pay raise. 4. Some of the children have fears about riding ……………….. another storm. 5. I'd never heard about the company before, so I had to think ……………….. my feet. IV. Supply the correct form of the verbs in block capitals in brackets to complete the passage. (10 points) The (1. assert) __________ that mathematics has been a major force in the of modern culture appears to many people (2. credible) __________or, at best, a rank exaggeration. This (3. believe) ____________results from a very common but (4. error) __________conception of what mathematics really is. Influenced by what was taught in school, the average person regards mathematics as a series of techniques of use only to the scientists, the engineer and perhaps the (5. finance) ____________ . The reaction to such teaching is (6. taste) __________ for the subject and a decision to ignore it. When challenged on this decision, a well-read person can obtain the support of authorities. No less than a (7. person) __________than Schopenhauer, the philosopher, described mathematics as the (8. low) __________activity of the spirit, as is shown by the fact that it can be performed by a machine. Despite such (9. authority)
__________ judgments, the layman’s decision to ignore mathematics is wrong.
The subject is not a series of techniques. These are indeed the least important aspects. The techniques are mathematics stripped of motivation, (10 reason) ________ , beauty and significance. SECTION 3: READING (60 points) I. Read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap. (10 points) THE TRADE IN RHINO HORN Last year thieves broke into a Scottish castle and stole only one thing: a rhino horn, which at
1.5 metres was the longest in the world. In China pharmaceutical factories have been building up collections of antiques made from rhino horn, for the sole (1)………of smashing them to powder to make the essential ingredient of many of their medicines. And in Africa poachers continue to die in the (2)………..for the black rhino. Recently, conservations met to (3)……… a campaign to persuade countries where rhino horn is (4)……… part of the traditional medicine to (5)………. to substitutes. The biggest threat to the survival of the rhinoceros is the (6)……….. of certain countries to enforce a ban on domestic (7)…… in rhino horn. The rhino horn is included in many (8)……….. for disorders ranging from fevers to nosebleeds. Horn, like fingernails, is made of keratin and has no proven medicinal (9)………… Traditional substitutes, such as horn from buffalo or antelope, are regarded as second best. The battle is thought to be winnable. But it may be harder than the battle against the trade in ivory, for there is a (10)………between the two commodities. Ivory is a luxury; rhino horn, people believe, could save the life of their child. 1. A. reason
B. intention
C. need
D. purpose
2. A. chance
B. search
C. fight
D. race
3.A. design
B. plan
C. programme
D. form
4.A. hardly
B. even
C. nearly
D. still
5.A. vary
B. switch
C. modify
D. adjust
6. A. rejection
B. denial
C. refusal
D. protest
7. A. business
B. commerce
C. selling
D. trading
8. A. recipes
B. aids
C. remedies
D. doses
9. A. capacity
B. values
C. control
D. powers
10.A. variation
B. difference
C. gap
D. comparison
II. Fill each gap in the passage below with ONE appropriate word in the space provided. (15 points) Contemporary art matters Contemporary art plays on the emotions and (1) …………… the mind. It can send powerful messages, (2) …………… political, social or environmental issues. It can also lead to (3) …………… reactions, including outrage from those who like to be shocked. It is available to everybody. Admission to contemporary art museums is usually free, whereas viewing traditional art often (4) …………… going to expensive art galleries to see the (5) …………… . Major museums may contain thousands of works, and although inevitably some will not be to everyone’s (6) …………… , many will be quite fascinating. They may even (7) …………… the
visitor to create their own pieces; if not for display in a museum, then as a form of street art – which is a wonderful way for young people to (8) …………… their feelings and ideas. In fact, creating works of contemporary art can be therapeutic, often proving (9) …………… effective in helping people (10) …………… recover from emotional or psychological problems. III. Read the following text and choose the best answer. (10 points) AROUND THE WORLD IN 94 DAYS In February 2001, at the age of 24, Ellen Mac Arthur became the youngest and fastest ever woman to sail round the world. After 94 days alone on board her yacht Kingfisher, she finished second to Michel Desjoyaux of France in the single-handed Vende Globe event. In sport, like life, the winner is usually feted, and runners-up quickly forgotten. This time the roles were reversed and it was Ellen, weighing just 50 kilos and barely 1m60 tall, that really captured people's imaginations and emotions. One newspaper in France, where she was and is a real heroine, summed up the national mood there with the headline 'Well done, Michel, brave Ellen'. As with many spectacular achievers, the signs were there from an early age, even in the unpromising nautical terrain of landlocked Derbyshire. Her great-grandparents were sailing people and a great-uncle was a merchant seaman, but any real link with the sea is tenuous. There was, however, an Auntie Thea who lived on the east coast of England and had a 26-foot sailing boat called Cabaret. It took just one trip on the open sea with her aunt to spark off Ellen's lifelong passion. She was eight years old. After that she began saving her pocket money and spent all her spare time reading sailing books in the library, absorbing information like a sponge. With her savings and the help of her grandmother she bought an 8-£00t fibre glass dinghy, and from that moment on there was no keeping her away from the water. Sailing round Britain single-handed at the age of 18 was just the start; Ellen had long since set her sights on the Vende. But finding the money to undertake round-the-world voyages is no easy feat. She wrote 2,000 letters requesting sponsorship and received just two replies, from the Kingfisher company who were looking to expand into France. And in terms of race preparation, if thoroughness was the key to success, Ellen could certainly be considered one of the favourites. In the eight months leading up to the start of the race, she sailed no fewer than 60,000 miles at the helm of her 60-£001 Kingfisher, far more than the rest of the fleet put together in the same period. During her three months at sea MacArthur negotiated deadly icebergs, gigantic waves and gale-force winds. She endured the freezing cold of the Antarctic and suffered the blistering heat of the windless doldrums. Racing conditions meant sleeping in 10-minute bursts, a survival suit that stayed on for weeks at a time and hands and wrists covered in sores and cuts. Food was dried or frozen. Water came from a desalinator, which passes sea water through a membrane. 'You don't really wash in the icy waters of the southern ocean,' she laughs. 'Anyway, there's no one to tell you that you smell.'
As Kingfisher crossed the finishing line Ellen was surrounded by hundreds of spectator boats and a cheering crowd of 200,000 lined the shore. Stepping off her yacht she looked remarkably composed and seemed to take the change from solitude to public adulation very much in her stride. Her thoughts, she later confessed, were on the realization that she had fulfilled the ambition that had dominated her life for the previous four or five years. 'Throughout that time my sole focus had been crossing the finishing line, and in the fastest possible time.' Now she could savour that moment. But despite MacArthur's belief that everyone who finishes the Vende is a winner, she still feels a sense of disappointment that, having taken the lead from the eventual winner Michel Desjoyaux 10 days from the finish, she did not quite have the energy or good fortune to turn her advantage into victory. 'You have to believe you can win from the start,' she asserts. 'Deep down you're a competitor, you don't climb the mast and come back black and blue just for a cruise. You do it because it's a race.' The public will now be hoping to see a suitable encore, some new feat of endurance to justify her celebrity status. For Ellen can no longer claim, as she did in her post-race press conference, to be the simple Derbyshire girl with 'no mobile, no credit cards, no money, no nothing'; she is a heroine and an inspiration to others of her generation. As if to reinforce this, and despite her reluctance to take on this role, she later commented: 'If there's one thing I've learned in this past year, it's that deep down in your heart, if you have a dream, then you can and must it happen.' 1. The word feted in the second paragraph means A. to make somebody pleasant.
B. to praise somebody.
C. to make somebody happy.
D. to give somebody a reward.
2. At the time of her achievement we learn that Ellen A. enjoyed only short-lived success. B. was more famous in France than anywhere else. C. attracted more attention than Michel Desjoyaux. D. became popular because of her size. 3. The word landlocked in the third paragraph means A. having no seaport.
B. having no fresh water .
C. having no land.
D. having no sea coast.
4. Where did Ellen's initial interest in sailing come from? A. She came from a family of sailing enthusiasts: B. She went to see one of her relatives. C. She read widely on the subject. D. She lived near the sea. 5. The word single-handed in the fourth paragraph means A. without any help from anyone else.
B. using only one of one's hands to row. C. on a boat with only one paddle. D. on a boat with only one sail. 6. What do we learn about Ellen at the start of the race? A. People thought she had a very good chance of winning. B. She was a more experienced sailor than the other racers. C. She had been waiting for this moment since she was 18. D. She had gone to great lengths to achieve her ambition. 7. The writer suggests that one cause of discomfort for Ellen at sea was A. the shortage of water.
B. her failure to sleep.
C. extremes of temperature.
D. a lack of cooking facilities.
8. According to the writer, when Ellen finished the race, she was A. overwhelmed by her new-found fame. B. surprised by the number of people who came to greet her. C. able to reflect on her achievement. D. delighted to be amongst people again. 9. According to the writer, Ellen A. thinks she deserved to win the race. B. has mixed feelings about the outcome of the race. C. knew she would win the race. D. thinks Michel Desjoyaux was lucky to beat her. 10. Which of the following views does the writer express in the last paragraph? A. She has the power to motivate.
B. She has no right to fame yet.
C. Her comments lack depth.
D. She needs to change her lifestyle.
IV. Read the following extract and answer questions 1–10. (10 pts) TERROR IN THE MOUNTAINS A. What is incredibly beautiful yet absolutely terrifying and deadly at the same time? For anyone above the snowline in the mountains, there is little doubt about the answer. Avalanche – the word strikes fear into the heart of any avid skier or climber. For those unfortunate enough to be caught up in one, there is virtually no warning or time to get out of danger and even less chance of being found. The ‘destroyer’ of the mountains, avalanches can uproot trees, crush whole buildings, and bury people metres deep under solidified snow. Around the world, as more and more people head to the mountains in winter, there are hundreds of avalanche fatalities every year.
B. A snow avalanche is a sudden and extremely fast-moving ‘river’ of snow which races down a mountainside (there can also be avalanches of rocks, boulders, mud, or sand). There are four main kinds. Loose snow avalanches, or sluffs, form on very steep slopes. These usually have a ‘teardrop’ shape, starting from a point and widening as they collect more snow on the way down. Slab avalanches, which are responsible for about 90% of avalanche-related deaths, occur when a stiff layer of snow fractures or breaks off and slides downhill at incredible speed. This layer may be hundreds of metres wide and several metres thick. As it tends to compact and set like concrete once it stops, it is extremely dangerous for anyone buried in the flow. The third type is an isothermal avalanche, which results from heavy rain leading to the snowpack becoming saturated with water. In the fourth type, air mixes in with loose snow as the avalanche slides, creating a powder cloud. These powder snow avalanches can be the largest of all, moving at over 300kmh, with 10,000,000 or more tonnes of snow. They can flow along a valley floor and even a short distance uphill on the other side. C. Three factors are necessary for an avalanche to form. The first relates to the condition of the snowpack. Temperature, humidity, and sudden changes in weather conditions all affect the shape and condition of snow crystals in the snowpack which, in turn, influences the stability of the snowpack. In some cases, weather causes an improvement in avalanche conditions. For example, low temperature variation in the snowpack and consistent below-freezing temperatures enable the crystals to compress tightly. On the other hand, if the snow surface melts and refreezes, this can create an icy or unstable layer. D. The second vital factor is the degree of slope of the mountain. If this is below 25 degrees, there is little danger of an avalanche. Slopes that are steeper than 60 degrees are also unlikely to set off a major avalanche as they ‘sluff’ the snow constantly, in a cascade of loose powdery snow which causes minimal danger or damage. This means that slabs of ice or weaknesses in the snowpack have little chance to develop. Thus, the danger zone covers the 25- to 60-degree range of slopes, with most avalanches being slab avalanches that begin on slopes of 35 to 45 degrees. E. Finally, there is the movement or event that triggers the avalanche. In the case of slab avalanches, this can be a natural trigger, such as a sudden weather change, a falling tree or a collapsing ice or snow overhang. However, in most fatal avalanches, it is people who create the trigger by moving through an avalanche-prone area. Snowmobiles are especially dangerous. On the other hand, contrary to common belief, shouting is not a big enough vibration to set off a landslide.
For questions 41–45, choose the correct heading for each paragraph A–E from the list of headings below (i-viii). There are more headings than paragraphs. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.
1. Paragraph A
2. Paragraph B
4. Paragraph D
5. Paragraph E
3. Paragraph C
For questions 6–10, Complete the table below. Use NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the reading passage for each answer. Write your answers in the spaces provided. Type of avalanche
Characteristics
Loose avalanches
also known as sluffs; steep slopes; (6)____________ shape; minor risk
Slab avalanches
thick layer of snow breaks off; set very hard once they stop; cause about 90% of (7)__________
Isothermal avalanches
caused by weight of (8)__________ mixed in with the snow
Powder snow avalanches
Develop a cloud of loose snow mixed with air; (9)__________ of all types of avalanche; more fast and
cover
a
huge
distance,
even
travelling
(10)__________ V. You are going to read an article containing reviews of recently-published books. For questions 1-10, choose from reviews (A-F). The reviews may be chosen more than once. Book Corner A round-up of the latest fiction and non-fiction from Beth Young. A Reading a new novelist is a bit like asking a stranger out on a date. You never quite know if this is the start of a beautiful relationship. You check the blurbs, the publicity photograph, and flick through
the book to look for the two essentials: entertainment and substance. Beginner’s Greek by James Collins is certainly big on the latter, weighing in at 400-plus pages. And the quotes on the back cover have the effect of a bunch of friends saying to you, ‘Go on, you’ll get on brilliantly’. Early indications are that this blind date could lead to a deeper relationship. Beginner’s Greek is described by The New York Times as a “great big sunny lemon chiffon pie of a novel” about romantic love amongst the American middle classes. It is indeed delicious. B In Manil Suri’s second outing The Age of Shiva we have a broad-sweeping, epic novel with an unforgettable heroine so wilful yet flawed that it calls to mind that other famous leading lady, Scarlett O’Hara in Gone With the Wind. The story begins at a firework party in Delhi where Meera falls disastrously in love. We follow her journey to Bombay, marriage and obsessive motherhood, with occasional flashbacks to a childhood that was marred by political turmoil. Mathematics professor, Suri, captures the fluidity of the role of women with a beautiful kind of precision. C Devotees of playwright David Mamet, whose screen work includes Wag The Dog and the award-winning Glengarry Glen Ross may be less than enamoured of Ira Nadel’s new biography, David Mamet: A Life in the Theatre. It may seem churlish to question the minutia of incidents that abound in this comprehensive tome, but whilst Nadel is clearly striving for accuracy one feels there ought to have been more sifting, more mining for the gold amongst the biographical trivia. In addition, Nadel’s tone is somewhat dry and academic and seems at odds with the brilliance of David Mamet’s own writing. That said, the book offers a sound introduction to the life and career of the man hailed as one of America’s most outstanding writers. D Can any Mother help me? is the true story of a desperately lonely mother who, in 1935, appealed to other women through the letters page of a women’s magazine. Writing under a pseudonym, the woman known as Ubique (meaning ‘everywhere’) little realised that she would be the trigger for the launch of a new and private magazine that would last for the next fifty years. The Cooperative Correspondence Club was formed to offer comfort and support to wives, often well-educated women, who craved stimulation beyond the drudgery of family life. Jenna Bailey has done a superb job of organising and editing this compendium, adding her own insightful commentary. E Subtitled, The Life and Times of Henry Howard, Earl of Surrey, Jessie Child’s debut historical biography, Henry VIII's Last Victim, was the worthy winner of last year’s Elizabeth Longford Prize. Henry Howard’s victim status is owing to the fact that he was the final person to be executed by King Henry VIII, a mere nine days before the king himself expired. Although killed ostensibly for treason, the Earl of Surrey’s only real crime it seems was leading an unsuccessful army campaign in France.
Only 29, he was also a distinguished poet with a fine literary voice, a persona which refutes his reputation as the spoilt son of the Duke of Norfolk. F This is the 25th outing for T. Keneally but he’s lost none of his writing powers. The Widow and Her Hero takes real life events during the Second World War as its inspiration and builds a tale of love and intrigue. Grace looks back on her life to recall her courtship with the hero of the title, the handsome Captain Leo Waterhouse. Leo is tragically killed whilst on a secret mission but it is many years before Grace discovers the facts about his death. Keneally made fans galore when Schindler’s Ark was published and later made into the award-winning Steven Spielberg film, Schindler’s List. The Widow and Her Hero will bring him even more fans. In which review are the following mentioned? 1) A story in which someone is unaware of the impact of their action.
_________
2) A description of the opening scene.
_________
3) An author who exemplifies source material with their own analysis.
_________
4) A humorous comparison with a real-life situation.
_________
5) A character who finds out the truth about a situation
. _________
6) A hint that the author’s future writing career will be positive.
_________
7) A book that would be appreciated by people without much previous knowledge of the subject. _________ 8) A book which has already won critical acclaim.
_________
9) A book which includes too much factual detail.
_________
10) A mention of the profession of the author.
_________
SECTION 4. WRITING II. The figure shows demographic trends in Scotland. Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main feature. You should write about 150 words. (15 pts)
III. The government should allocate more funding to teaching science rather than other subjects in order for its country to develop and progress. To what extent do you agree? In about 300 - 350 words, write an essay to express your opinion. ( 30 points)
04.
CHUYÊN BẮC GIANG
PART I. LISTENING (50 points) I. You will hear part of a radio discussion with Ellen Harrington of the Meadow Lane Residents Group, andTim Barlow from CartonTown Planning Department. For questions 1-5, choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. ( 10 points) 1. What was Ellen's first reaction when the town centre was closed to traffic? A. She was terrified.
B. She was miserable.
C. She was delighted.
D. She was suspicious.
2. The mood of the Meadow Lane residents can best be described as _______. A. resigned
B. dissatisfied
C. furious
D. dejected
3. How doesTim feel about the changes in the town centre? A. He regrets they were made so quickly. B. He believes they were inevitable. C. He thinks the town council should have foreseen the problem. D. He is proud the town council went forward with them. 4. What doesTim think about the protest Ellen's group is planning? A. He doesn't think it will accomplish anything. B. He thinks it is not aimed at the right people. C. He doesn't think drivers will be affected. D. He thinks it will be dangerous. 5. What does Ellen think will make the protest effective? A. the amount of publicity it will generate B. the inconvenience it will cause to drivers C. the number of demonstrators who will take part D. the forthcoming election Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
II. For questions 6-10, listen to a complaint from a woman called Julie Gold and decide whether these statements are True (T) or False (F). Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (10 points) 6. Her complaint today was about a car booking in Baker Road. 7. The car she wanted to use was not in the correct location. 8. The advisor assumes that the previous car user was not able to park in the correct place. 9. Julie was shocked to discover that the car had been heavily damaged. 10. The advisor says that the caller will not be charged for today’s booking Your answers: 6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
III. Question 11-15. Answer the question below. Write NO MORE THAN FIVE WORDS for each answer. (10 points) 11. Who works in the Beehive building? ________________________________________________________________________ 12. What nationality was the architect of the building? ________________________________________________________________________ 13. In which year did construction of the building start? ________________________________________________________________________ 14. How long did it take to contruct? ________________________________________________________________________ 15. How tall is the building in metres? ___________________________________________________________________ PART II. LEXICO – GRAMMAR (30 points) I. Choose the correct word or phrase to complete each sentence. (10 points) 1. I knew my mother would ________ a face the minute she saw my new hair cut. A. drag
B. lift
C. pull
D. race
2. When she started borrowing my clothes without asking, I had to put my ______ down. A. stamp
B. show
C. fish
D. foot
3. If you are going to town, keep your eyes ________ for that book I was telling you about. A. peeled
B. clean
C. wide
D. fresh
4. He was a tall, intimidating persson, with a firm tone of voice and a very short ______ . A. fuse
B. line
C. patience
D. temperament
5. Peter was ______ of revealing the company’s future plans to the reporter.
A. circ*mspect
B. wary
C. prudent
D. cautious
6. I'd just met his parents for the first time so I was on my best ______ . A. manners
B. conduct
C. behaviour D. demeanour
7. As his whole family were doctors, it was in his ______ to take up that profession A. blood
B. spirit
C. soul
D. heart
8. She tried to ________ Tom’s importance to the company in order to gain a promotion for herself. A. diminish
B. swindle
C. reduce
D. shrink
9. I hate the way Tony ________ around looking so self – important. A. struts
B. scampers
C. slithers
D. slinks
10. Most frequently, the earthquake lasts 30 to 60 seconds, so usually there is no time to avert the mortal ________ once the shaking starts. A. upkeep
B. upturn
C. upshot
D. upswing
III. Complete each sentence with one suitable particle or preposition.(5 points) 1. She’s rung________. I must have said that something to upset her. 2. A pay rise is not________ the realms of possibility, I’m afraid. 3. The murderer did________ all of his victims by poisoning them with cyanide. 4. All our household goods are insured________ accidental damage. 5. You shouldn’t have sent Mark that Valentine’s card. I think you’ve scared him________. IV. Write the correct form of the words given in the brackets. (10 points) Over half a century ago, scientists found they could record the (1) ELECTRIC ________ signals of the brain at work. What at first appeared a random hotchpotch
of
activity
became
a
pattern
of
elegent
waves
(2)
________determined. Ever since, scientists have wondered whether the RHYTHM secrets of our thoughts, (3) ________and even consciousness itself might be hidden in the patterns of our brain waves.
PERCEIVE
The question of why we have brain waves is,(4) ________, as hotly debated today as it was when the patterns were discovered. But the meaning, ARGUE and even the existence, of fast rythyms in the alert brain is highly (5) ________. What is problematic is that you can’t perceive these rhythms directly, they are so well hidden in the noise created by other brain activity, but many (6) CONTROVERSY ________ now hold the (7) ________ that the significance of these brain waves should not be (8) ________.
The lastest suggestion is that the rhythms could be (9) ________ in SEARCH-CONVIN detecting processes going on in different regions of the brain. Some believe CE that these rhythms might even interact, and in doing so help the brain to ESTIMATE package information into (10) ________ thoughts. How we bring together these related signals in the brain is a puzzle as yet unsolved.
DECIDE
COHERE Your answer: 1
6
2
7
3
8
4
9
5
10
PART III. READING (60 points) I. For questions 1–10, read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap. Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points) As he hacked his way through the (1) _____ undergrowth, Richard Miles wondered why his boss couldn’t have sent him on a simple (2) _____ holiday. This African exploration was more than he had bargained for. As he (3) _____ deep ravines, treacherous river crossings, and dark forests full of (4) _____ vegetation, he asked himself why he hadn’t gone to a holiday (5) _____ where he could have lounged around by a pool all day. The chartered flight that would rescue them from the living nightmare was not due for three more days and he wasn’t even sure the pilot would find them so far off the beaten (6) _____ . There were only animal pathways here, a (7) _____ cry from his (8) _____ life in the City of London. And as his hopes for returning back to civilisation (9) _____ , his mobile phone rang. It was his boss checking to see how the (10) _____ was working out. 1. A. crowded
B. barren
C. dense
D. mountainous
2. A. scheduled
B. programmed
C. home
D. package
3. A. negotiated
B. marched
C. strode
D. pursued
4. A. humid
B. quaint
C. bustling
D. lush
5. A. resort
B. attraction
C. route
D. site
6. A. path
B. track
C. road
D. trail
7. A. sharp
B. far
C. long
D. hard
8. A. confidential
B. resilient
C. privileged
D. desolate
9. A. diminished
B. diverged
C. diluted
D. dissented
10. A. excursion
B. travel
C. outing
D. trip
Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
II. For questions 1-10, read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only one word in each space. There is an example at the beginning (0).
To all intents and (1) ___________ , Jill had left her successful job as a lawyer to have a sabbatical for six months and everyone expected her to return to her highly-paid job. But in reality she was on her way to East Africa to work as a volunteer in an orphanage, intent (2) ___________ staying there for ever. (3) ___________ since she was six, she had been fascinated by stories about Africa and then horrified by the conditions (4) ___________ which millions of children live. Two years ago she had gone on an expensive safari holiday with her friends to Uganda but she didn’t enjoy the holiday. (5) ___________ she had seen children washing in the filthy puddles outside their shacks, the situation hadn’t seemed real to her. As a result, (6) ___________ returning to her hotel, she made a decision that would change her life for ever. No (7) ___________ had she arrived home than she sold her house and got a job as a volunteer (8) ___________ the intention of making a difference to children’s lives. She deliberately didn’t tell anyone what she was doing in (9) ___________ they tried to talk her out of it. (10) ___________ all the secrecy. Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
III. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.(10 points) When one hears the expression “role models”, one’s mind naturally jumps to celebrities, especially as far as young people are concerned. Therefore, it would be more than natural to assume that teenagers, heavily influenced by the media, are dazzled by well-known Hollywood stars, famous musicians and internationally renowned athletes. However, nothing could be further from the truth. In reality, according to a recent survey, over 75% of teens who filled out an online questionnaire claimed that the role model for whom they had the greatest respect was not a famous personality, but a family member. It seems that the qualities that make a good role model are more complex than researchers first assumed. For example, Nancy L, a teenage girl from Wisconsin, described her role model as a woman who had a clear sense of what was important to her, making the effort to create things that would make a real difference in the world. The woman she was referring to was her favorite aunt, who was a painter and sculptor. Role models come into young people’s lives in various ways. They are family members, educators, peers and ordinary people encountered in their daily lives. Students emphasized that being a role model is not confined to those with international fame or unbelievable wealth. Instead, they said the greatest attribute of a role model is the ability to inspire others. Teachers were often mentioned as examples in this case, ones that are dedicated to encouraging students, helping them push their limits and strengthen their characters. Another quality high on the list was the ability to overcome obstacles. In addition to parents, peers often made up a large percentage of such role models. Young people are at a point in their lives when they are developing the skills of initiative and capability, so it is only natural that they admire people who show them that success in the face of difficulty is possible.
A final and perhaps unexpected character trait that the youth of today admire is a clear set of values. Children admire people whose actions are consistent with their beliefs; in other words, who practice what they preach. Role models help them to understand the significance of honesty, motivation and the desire to do general good. For example, local politicians who clearly struggle to improve living conditions in their cities are high on their lists of role models. Perhaps what should be understood from what young people consider important in a role model is that each and every person around them affects them to a certain extent, perhaps much more than most parents think. This makes it crucial for adults to be aware of their influence on the young and set the best examples possible. (Adapted from ‘Reader Digest’) Question 1: Which of the following is closest in meaning to “dazzled”? A. impressed B. disappointed C. confused D. frightened Question 2: Which of the following is LEAST likely to be assumed as teens’ role model? A. A handsome actor B. A talented footballer C. A hot popstar D. A brilliant scientist Question 3: What is surprising about the findings of the survey? A. Celebrities are the most common role models to most teens. B. The role models of the respondents are not quite influential. C. The qualities that make up teens’ role models are not simple. D. Most celebrities have their family members as role models. Question 4: What does the passage tell us about Nancy L’s role model? A. She was not related to her. B. She was famous for her talent. C. She was a mysterious person. D. She had strong priorities. Question 5: Which of the following is closest in meaning to “confined to”? A. assisted by B. restricted to C. similar to D. influenced by Question 6: According to the passage, what quality makes teachers good role models? A. their ambition to succeed B. their wide knowledge C. their ability as academic educators D. their positive effect on students Question 7: The ability to overcome obstacles is important to young people because ______. A. teens must have it to teach their peers B. it is not something that one can easily find C. obstacles make life more difficult D. it is relevant to the stage of life they are in Question 8: According to paragraph 5, children really look up to those who _______. A. are as active as possible B. do what they say they will do C. pay attention to the needs of the young D. are religious in their life Question 9: According to the passage, some politicians are considered admirable ______. A. because they are familiar to young people B. because of the strong power they have C. because of their concern for others D. because they believe in themselves Question 10: The passage suggests that adults should ______. A. try to avoid imposing their influence on younger people B. realize that they have a strong effect on young people C. be careful of the role models their children may have D. encourage children to reject celebrities as role models Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
IV. Read the passage and do the tasks. (10 points)
Complete Questions 1–5. Two examples are given. Questions 1–5: The reading passage has seven paragraphs, A–G. Choose the correct heading for paragraphs A–F from the list of headings below.(5 points) List of Headings i. Using hunting to stop a worse crime ii. Legal hunting has little financial benefit iii. Trying to make a living iv. Start by learning about the problem v. Different agricultural styles lead to different outcomes vi. Emotional reactions may have negative consequences vii. The system is not perfect but can be beneficial viii. Motivation to take care of animals ix. Travelling to Africa by plane Example :
Paragraph G:
Paragraph A
___VI_________
Answer iv
1. Paragraph B
______________
2. Paragraph C
______________
3. Paragraph D
______________
4. Paragraph E
______________
5. Paragraph F
______________
Read the passage again and answer Questions 6–10. Questions 6–10. Do the following statements agree with the information given in the reading passage? (5 points) Write TRUE if the statement agrees with the information FALSE if the statement contradicts the information NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this 6. Money from trophy hunting is sometimes used for good causes. 7. During the 1970s and 1980s animals weren’t protected in Namibia. 8. In Namibia animals are able to move around in the same way as they are in Botswana. 9. Local communities only receive a small amount of the money from trophy hunting. 10. The Zambian Wildlife Authority (ZAWA) still receives some money from legal hunting. A. When a famous Zimbabwean lion was hunted and killed by a foreign tourist, people on social media were furious. This resulted in an airline ban of the transportation of trophies killed by tourists and people repeatedly asking travellers to avoid countries that allow this kind of trophy hunting. Trophy hunting describes legal hunting where people pay to do it. It is permitted in countries including
Namibia, South Africa, Tanzania and Zambia. While many people are disgusted by this, what they don’t often realise is that stopping this kind of hunting might actually do more harm than good. B. Let’s look at Namibia for example. The local Minister of Environment and Tourism, Pohamba Shifeta, said that if airlines stopped transporting wildlife trophies, this would prevent the Namibians from protecting wildlife in their country. This is because the money that people pay to trophy hunt is used to stop illegal hunting, which is a much bigger problem than legal hunting. This suggests that trophy hunting can have a positive impact on the protection of wildlife, in theory at least. C. Namibia is often described as trophy hunting’s biggest success story. It is indeed true that hunting played an important role in increasing the number of wild animals after wars in the 1970s and 1980s negatively affected herd sizes. Today there are still 80 animal protection organisations in Namibia that rely completely on money from legal hunting. As Namibian journalist John Grobler says, farmers look after their animals better if they sell them to hunters. Namibia is currently experiencing a lack of rain which means some farmers may not have enough food for their animals. If they can’t earn money from their animals because hunting is stopped, farmers may decide to let them die. If hunting is stopped altogether, farmers will let the whole herd die. D. In Botswana, hunting large animals is now illegal for everyone and they have not suffered from the problems that John Grobler suggests above. However, there is a big difference between Botswana and Namibia – in Botswana there are no fences between people’s land, which means animals are able to move around freely. If farmers stop feeding them, they just go somewhere else to find food. In Namibia there are fences so the same thing will not happen there. Botswana’s ban on hunting is not without its problems, however. Large, wild animals are regularly killed when human life, food crops or farm animals are put in danger. In fact, this kind of animal death is considered to be a bigger killer than controlled hunting. E. Interestingly, in a recent article, Botswanan villagers said they would protect local wildlife better if they could earn money from it through hunting. However, this opinion goes against the results of a large study carried out by Economists at Large. They concluded that in nine African countries that allow trophy hunting, the ‘sport’ accounted for just 1.8 percent of total tourism revenue, while, more importantly, only 3 percent of the money actually reached the communities where hunting occurs. F. So what does all of this tell us? It tells us that whatever we might think about the hunters, hunting can have a positive effect – both for wildlife and for African people – when and where it is properly and ethically managed. However, too often the opposite occurs and the industry suffers from bad management and bad ethics. It also tells us that trophy hunting is far more complex than both those who love it and those who hate it often realise. So while the hunting industry might need some serious changes, it’s perhaps not time to stop it completely when African wildlife organisations have no other way of making money. It is interesting to look at Zambia in this regard. Before hunting was stopped in 2013, 60 percent of the Zambian Wildlife Authority’s (ZAWA) revenue came from legal hunting. Today, ZAWA has very little money and has had to receive some from the Zambian government more than once. G. So what can we do? Apart from supporting Africa’s national parks and wildlife areas as photographic tourists, there are no easy answers or quick solutions. But if we first try to understand the issue, it is a step in the right direction. And while this situation might make us angry, remember that shouting at our computer doesn’t really help anyone.
V. Read the passage and do the tasks. (15 points) Do animals think? When an animal knows it is being chased and starts to run, is it obeying some ancient instinct, or does it 'know' to be afraid? A Mammals have brains so they can feel pain and fear and can react in disgust. If a wildebeest did not feel pain, it would continue grazing as lions slowly devoured it. If an antelope did not sense fear, it would not break into a sprint at the first hint of cheetah. If a canine were not disgusted, it would not vomit; it would not be, as the saying goes, sick as a dog. Pain, fear and disgust are part of a mammal's survival machinery developed over tens of millions of years of evolution. hom*o sapiens have, however, only been around for about 200,000 years so all three emotional states owe something to mammal origins. If football hooligans can feel those emotions, then so too do deer, foxes and dogs. The argument is about how 'aware' or 'conscious' non-human mammals might be during these emotional events. When an animal knows it is being chased and starts to run, is it obeying some instinct inherited from ancestors that knew when to flee a danger zone or does it actually 'know' to be afraid? B That might be the wrong question. A human startled by a strange shape in a darkened corridor experiences a pounding heart, lungs gasping for air and a body in recoil. This is the well-known flight or fight reaction. A human appreciates the full force of fear and has already started to counter the danger a fraction of a second before the brain has time to absorb and order the information presented by the menacing figure. This is because mental calculations are too slow to cope with surprise attack. Pain precedes logic. Touch something hot and you withdraw your hand even before you have time to think about doing so. Once again, the wisdom is after the event. C If humans can experience the universal emotions of fear, anger, disgust, happiness, sadness, and surprise, then so can mammals. But does an animal think about its state of fear? Does it have not just a mind but a theory of mind? Does it have a sense of its own identity and that of another being? Can it put itself in another animal's shoes, so to speak? All animals communicate, but only humans have language. The puzzle remains: do animals think? Can they think about abstractions, about the past or about other animals? Researchers have wrestled with a series of experiments to see whether animals are capable of behaving as if they had the capacity to learn, the will to improvise and the ability to guess what other animals are thinking. Dogs show a remarkable capacity to guess human intentions correctly. Dogs, however, have lived intimately with humans for 15,000 years, so are unlikely to make ideal test subjects. D Primates, humanity's closest relatives, show unexpected abilities. Researchers from St Andrews in 1999 counted 39 different ways in which chimpanzees deal with food. Since these differ according to group and geography, they have used the word 'culture' to describe these differing methods. One female chimpanzee in Kyoto, convinced researchers that she could place Arabic numerals in ascending order one to nine. Monkeys astonished a team at Columbia University in New York in 1998 by distinguishing groups of objects numbering one to four. Chimpanzees in large captive colonies forge
alliances, switch sides and double-cross each other. They have also been seen in the wild systematically searching for leaves that have a medicinal effect. From such observations, a new branch of research has been born. It is called zoopharmacognosy. E Chimpanzees and humans share a common ancestor, and 98% of their DNA. Do more distant mammal relatives share the capacity for cogitation? Several years ago, Keith Kendrick at the Babraham Institute in Cambridge astonished the world by revealing that sheep could recognise up to 50 other sheep and up to ten human faces for at least two years after first seeing them. If a sheep can tell the difference between its flock members from flash cards and screen pictures, it must surely have a sense of these other creatures even when they are not there. Perhaps this means it also has an idea of 'self'. F More disconcertingly, pigs have demonstrated their own theory of mind. Mike Mendl of Bristol University revealed astonishing evidence at the British Association science festival in 2002. A larger and stronger pig that did not know where food was hidden had learned to follow a weaker, but better informed pig, to the trough. At this point the weaker pig would start to use distracting behaviour to keep the bully pig guessing, and only lunge for the rations when not being watched. It seems the smaller pig could guess what the other was thinking and outsmart it. In a human, this is what we call 'intelligence'. G. One of the animal world's highest achievers, however, is not a mammal at all. Betty the crow ·lives in an Oxford laboratory. She repeatedly picks up a straight piece of wire, bends it into a hook and uses the hook to lift an appetising treat from a tube too deep for her beak. Before achieving this feat for the first time, she had never previously seen a piece of wire. So an animal far removed from humankind could identify a challenge, contemplate a simple matter of physics, identify a tool shape, select a raw material, make a tool and retrieve the reward. Birds are cousins not of mammals but of the dinosaurs. Humans and birds last shared a common ancestor 200 million years ago. Experiments like these confirm, over and over again, that other mammals are more like us than we thought. It becomes increasingly difficult to know just what it is that makes humans different. (Source: exam essential ielts - practice test 1- passage 03-p43) Questions 1-5 Reading passage has six sections, A-G. Which section contains the fallowing information? Write the correct letter A-Fin boxes 1-5 on your answer sheet. NB You may use any letter more than once. EXAMPLE: an investigation into the extent of animal intelligence and awareness - C 1. the suggestion that an animal less recognised for its intelligence has an impressive memory 2. a comparison of what different living creatures experience emotionally
3. an account of a supposedly simple creature that has learnt a clever trick 4. acknowledgment that inherited abilities should not be seen as a measure of intelligence. 5. an account of how one animal got the better of another. Questions 6-10 Answer the questions below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS ONLY from the text for each answer. 6 According to the text, which animal is hunted and eaten by lions? 7 What sort of people are given as an example of low intelligence humans? 8 Which phrase in section B means run away or stay and confront the danger? 9 According to the text, which two animals successfully completed numerical tasks? 10 What type of tool did Betty the crow make from a piece of wire? PART D: WRITING (60 points) II. The graph below gives information about international tourist arrivals in different parts of the world. Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make comparisons where relevant. Write at least 150 words (15 points)
III. Writing an essay (30 points) You should spend about 40 minutes on this task. Write about the following topic: Tourism is an important industry which has developed the economies of countries in many parts of the world. What effect has tourism had on local communities? Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or experience. Write at least 250 words.
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05.
CHUYÊN THÁI NGUYÊN
A. LISTENING (50pts) Part 1. You will hear a radio interview with a road safety expert on the topic of road rage. For questions 1-5, choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. (10pts) 1. James says that driver become angry if: A. they think they will be delayed. B. other drivers threaten them. C. other people don’t drive as well as they do. D. they lose control of their car. 2. Revenge rage can lead motorists to A. chase after dangerous drivers. B. become distracted whilst driving. C. deliberately damage another car. D. take unnecessary risks. 3. James say that passengers become angry when buses are A. slow B. expensive C. crowded D. uncomfortable 4. According to James, what does the experiment with grass show? A. People living in country areas are better drivers. B. Strong smells help us drive more safely. C. Our surroundings can affect the way we drive. D. Regular breaks on a journey keep drivers calm. 5. James thinks the hi-tech car A. sounds less irritating than a passenger. B. is not very reliable. C. could cause further danger. D. would be difficult to control. Your answers 1.
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Part 2: You will hear the historian, George Davies, talking about society and the theatre in England in the time of William Shakespeare. Decide whether the following statements are true (T) or false (F). Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10pts) 6. According to Professor Davies, the level of literacy in sixteen-century England matched his expectations. 7. In Professor Davies’ opinion, the advantage of the usual method of communication in the sixteenth century was that people absorbed more of what they heard. 8. Professor Davies believes that Shakespeare’s company developed their basic acting skills by attending special voice classes. 9. In Professor Davies’ view, the advantage of sixteen-century theatres was that the performances were complemented by everyday life. 10. Professor Davies thinks that sixteen-century plays were expected to deal with personal confessions. Your answers 6.
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Part 3. (10 pts) You will hear a talk about an investigation into obesity. For questions 11-15, listen and answer the following questions with NO MORE THAN FIVE WORDS. Write your answer in the space provided. 11. What are less common within the family? ____________________________________ 12. What can make people eat more than their need? ____________________________________ 13. What kind of emotions can affect people’s eating habits? ____________________________________ 14. Who are more likely to eat more due to negative emotions? ____________________________________ 15. What will the researchers continue to investigate in the coming week? ____________________________________ B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (30 pts) Part 1: For questions 1- 10, choose the correct answer A, B, C, or D to each of the following questions. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. 1. He was absolutely _______ with anger when he found that I had scratched his car. A. burned
B. carmine
C. fickle
D. livid
2. I don’t think Paul will ever get married — he’s the stereotypical _______ bachelor. A. settled
B. confirmed
C. fixed
D. determined
3. I cannot think who had_______ the gaff, but it seems everyone knows that Nicole and I are planning to get married. A. burst
B. blown
C. split
D. banged
4. As we were in an urgent need of syringes and other medical equipment, the aid organization promised to deliver them _______ the double. A. at
B. in
C. with
D. round
5. She was so ill that it was ________ whether she would live or not. A. win or lose B. come and go C. touch and go
D. on and off
6. “Have you got a copy of Gone with the Wind?” “You’re ________ luck. We’ve just one copy left” A. by
B. with
C. in
D. on
7. When I got stuck in the elevator, I was scared out of my ________. A. brains
B. head
C. wits
D. nerves
8. All traffic is being _________ because of the military parades. A. diverted
B. converted
C. changed
D. altered
9. As he was running for a charity which was _____ to his heart, he felt even more determined to complete the race. A. warm
B. near
C. next
D. close
10. On completing her fifth Atlantic race, she decided to _____ herself a new challenge. A. set
B. make
C. fix
D. accept
Your Answers 1.
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Part 3. Fill in the gaps of the following sentences with suitable particles or prepositions. Write the answers in the correspondent numbered boxes. (10pts) There is an example at the beginning (0). Example: 0. up with 0. He finds it hard to put _________ the noise of the nearby factory. 1. The station is _____________ walking distance of the hotel. 2. I’m so tired after work that I often drop _____________ in front of the TV. 3. The decision was deferred _____________ a later meeting. 4. That awful new office block is a real blot _____________ the landscape. 5. I don’t know how Nicole survives, living all away _____________ the sticks. 6. Carl and I just spent the whole day lazing _____________ listening to music. 7. Unfortunately, most of the photos Terry took were ______________ focus. 8. Why don’t we meet _____________ here again on the 12th, when I get back from Germany? 9. The prime minister has come _____________ fire during this election campaign for being slow to respond to events.
10. Keep plodding _____________ and you’ll finish your novel eventually. Your answers: 1.
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10. Part 4: Write the correct form of each bracketed word. Slave Narratives In the wake of the bloody Nat Turner (1. rebel) __________ in Southampton County, Virginia, in 1831, an increasingly fervent (2. slave) __________ movement in the United States sponsored (3. hand) __________ autobiographical accounts of slavery by fugitives from the South in order to make (4. abolish) __________ of a largely (5. difference) __________ white Northern readership. From 1830 to the end of the slavery era, the fugitive slave narrative dominated the (6. literature) __________ landscape of antebellum black America. The Narrative of the Life of Frederick Douglass, an American Slave, Written by Himself (1845) gained the most attention, (7. establishment) __________ Frederick Douglass as the leading African American man of letters of his time. By predicating his struggle for freedom on his (8. sole) __________ pursuit of literacy, education, and (9. depend) __________, Douglass portrayed himself as a (10. make) __________ man, which appealed strongly to middle-class white Americans. Your answers: 1.
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C. READING COMPREHENSION (60 pts) Part 1. From the words listed below, choose the one which best fits the space, A, B, C or D.
LONDON’S BLACK CABS Black cabs, officially known as Hackney Carriages, are (1) _______ London and are special for a number of reasons. For a start, they are the only taxis in the city that can be hailed from the kerb with a raised hand signal to get the driver’s attention. Currently, it is estimated that there are 20,000 black cabs (2) _______ on the capital’s streets. Their origin, in fact, can be (3) _______ the name ‘Hackney Carriage’ said to derive from the French word haquenée referring to the type of horse used to pull the carriages in the days of horse-drawn carriages. The first horse-drawn Hackney coaches appeared on London’s streets in the 17th century during the reign of Queen Elizabeth I. As transport developed and motor cars were (4) _______, motor cabs replaced the horse-drawn carriages. Since the end of the 19th century, various car manufacturers’ vehicles have been used as motor cabs but it was not until the mid-20th century that the cabs we have been (5) _______ over the last decades first appeared. It is such a(n) (6) _______ of becoming a black cab driver in London and it is (7) _______. If you want to gain this honour you will need to have passed the infamous test known as ‘the Knowledge’, which
was first introduced in 1851 following (8) _______ of complaints by passengers whose cab drivers got lost. This incredibly difficult test can take around three or four years to prepare for and you can often catch a glimpse of those drivers who are doing just this zipping around London on their mopeds, with a map (9) _______ to a clipboard on their handlebars. These people are essentially trying not only to master the 25,000 or so streets within a six-mile radius of Charing Cross, but also to work out the most direct routes from place to place. They must know thousands of ‘points of interest’ such as hotels, hospitals, places of worship, theatres, stations, sports and leisure facilities, to name but a few. Practically everywhere and anywhere that a potential passenger would wish to be taken to or from must be known, so a nodding acquaintance, for a black cab driver, is (10) _______, and perhaps this is the most difficult part, knowing the quickest way to get from one place to another. Little wonder so few people are successful. 1. A. commensurate with B. equivalent to
C. synonymous with D. tantamount to
2. A. hereabouts
B. hither and thither C. or thereabouts
D. there and then
3. A. ferreted out from
B. hunted down from C. mapped out to
D. traced back to
4. A. all the rage
B. of high standing
C. of repute
D. in vogue
5. A. clued in on
B. gunned up on
C. in the know about D. no stranger to
6. A. handiwork
B. procurement
C. realisation
D. undertaking
7. A. beyond you
B. no brainer
C. no mean feat
D. over your head
8. A. droves
B. hordes
C. packs
D. swarms
9. A. chained
B. fastened
C. linked
D. sealed
10. A. beyond measure
B. beyond redemption C. beyond the pale D. beyond the veil
Your answers: 1.
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Part 2. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each gap. Use only one word in each gap. Write your answer in correspondent numbered boxes. (10pts) Despite the continued resilience of those early town perks, it wasn’t until the Depression that modern Hershey started to take (1) …………. Perhaps the only town in the country actually to prosper during the 1930s, it thrived because Hershey vowed his Utopia would never be on the (2) …………... Instead he funded a massive building boom that gave (3) …………. to the most visited buildings in today’s Hershey and delivered wages to more than 600 workers. He admitted that his (4) …………. were partly selfish: “If I don’t provide work for them, I’ll have to feed them. And since building materials are now at their lowest cost levels, I’m going to build and give them jobs.” He seems to have spared no (5) ………….; most of the new buildings were strikingly opulent. The first to be finished was the three-million-dollar limestone Community Centre, home to the 1,904-seat Venetian-style Hershey Community Theatre, which has played (6) …………. since 1933 to touring Broadway shows and to music, dance, and opera performances. It offers just as much to look at when the lights are on and the curtains closed. The floors in the aptly (7) …………. Grand Lobby are polished Italian lava rock, surrounded by marble walls and capped with a bas-relief ceiling showing (8) …………. of wheat, beehives, swans, and scenes from Roman mythology. With dazzling inner foyer, Hershey (9) …………. his nose even harder at the ravages of the Depression: The arched ceiling is tiled in gold, the fire curtain bears a painting of Venice, and the ceiling is studded with 88 tiny lightbulbs to re-create a star-(10) …………. night.
Your answers: 1.
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Part 3: Read the following passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) according to the text. Write your answers (A, B, C or D) in the corresponding numbered boxes (15pts). Until recently, most American entrepreneurs were men. Discrimination against women in business, the demands of caring for families, and lack of business training had kept the number of women entrepreneurs small. Now, however, businesses owned by women account for more than $40 billion in annual revenues, and this figure is likely to continue rising throughout the 1990s. As Carolyn Doppelt Gray, an official of the Small Business Administration, has noted, “The 1970s was the decade of women entering management, and the 1980s turned out to be the decade of the woman entrepreneur”. What are some of the factors behind this trend? For one thing, as more women earn advanced degrees in business and enter the corporate world, they are finding obstacles. Women are still excluded from most executive suites. Charlotte Taylor, a management consultant, had noted, “In the 1970s women believed if they got an MBA and worked hard, they could become chairman of the board. Now they’ve found out that isn’t going to happen, so they go out on their own”. In the past, most women entrepreneurs worked in “women’s” fields: cosmetics and clothing, for example. But this is changing. Consider ASK Computer Systems, a $22-million-a-year computer software business. It was founded in 1973 by Sandra Kurtzig, who was then a housewife with degrees in math and engineering. When Kurtzig founded the business, her first product was software that let weekly newspapers keep tabs on their newspaper carriers-and her office was a bedroom at home, with a shoebox under the bed to hold the company’s cash. After she succeeded with the newspaper software system, she hired several bright computer-science graduates to develop additional programs. When these were marketed and sold, ASK began to grow. It now has 200 employees, and Sandra Kurtzig owns $66.9 million of stock. Of course, many women who start their own businesses fail, just as men often do. They still face hurdles in the business world, especially problems in raising money; the banking and finance world is still dominated by men, and old attitudes die hard. Most businesses owned by women are still quite small. But the situation is changing; there are likely to be many more Sandra Kurtzigs in the years ahead. 1. What is the main idea of this passage? A. Women today are better educated than in the past, making them more attractive to the business world. B. The computer is especially lucrative for women today. C. Women are better at small businesses than men are. D. Women today are opening more businesses of their own. 2. The word “excluded” in line 8 (Women are still excluded from most executive suites) is closest in meaning to A. not permitted in B. often invited to
C. decorators of D. charged admission to 3. All of the following were mentioned in the passage as detriments to women in the business world EXCEPT A. women were required to stay at home with their families B. women lacked ability to work in business C. women faced discrimination in business D. women were not trained in business 4. In line 10, “that” (Now they’ve found out that isn’t going to happen) refers to A. a woman becomes chairman of the board B. women working hard C. women achieving advanced degrees D. women believing that business is a place for them 5. According to the passage, Charlotte Taylor believes that women in the 1970s A. were unrealistic about their opportunities in business management B. were still more interested in education than business opportunities C. had fewer obstacles in business than they do today D. were unable to work hard enough to succeed in business 6. The author mentions the “shoebox under the bed” in the third paragraph in order to A. show the frugality of women in business B. show the resourcefulness of Sandra Kurtzig C. point out that initially the financial resources of Sandra Kurtzig’s business were limited D. suggest that the company needed to expand 7. The expression “keep tabs on” in line 15 is closest in meaning to A. recognize the appearance of B. keep records of C. provide transportation for D. pay the salaries of 8. The word “hurdles” in line 20 can be best replaced by A. fences B. obstacles C. questions D. small groups 9. It can be inferred from the passage that the author believes that businesses operated by women are small because
A. women prefer a small intimate setting B. women can’t deal with money C. women are not able to borrow money easily D. many women fail at large businesses 10. The author’s attitude about the future of women in business is A. sceptical B. optimistic C. frustrated D. negative Your answers: 1.
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Part 4. Read the following passage and choose the most suitable from A to G on the list and write it in each gap from 1 to 5 and from the gap 6 to 10 complete the notes. Write your answers in the correspondent numbered boxes. (20 pts) DOES GLOBALIZATION HELP THE POOR? A. In recent years, we have heard steady proclamations emanating from the advocates of economic globalization and leaders of the world’s leading financial institutions – the World Bank, the International Monetary Fund (IMF), the World Trade Organization (WTO), etc. - that the ultimate purpose in pushing economic globalization is to help the world’s poor. More specifically, they contend that removing barriers to corporate trade and financial investments is the best path to growth, which they claim offers the best chance of rescuing the poor from poverty. They also assert that the millions of people who oppose the economic globalization model are harming the interests of the poor. They should back off and leave it to corporations, bankers and global bureaucracies to do the planning and solve the world’s problems. Such claims are routinely replayed in the media. One prominent national columnist writes, ‘Protesters are choking the only route out of poverty for the world’s poor.’ In other words, if the protesting stopped, the financial institutions would save the day. Is this believable? Is it the salvation of the poor that really drives global corporations or are their primary motives quite different? B. Almost all the evidence from the most robust period of economic globalization – 1970 to the end of the 20th century — shows that its outcome is the exact opposite of what its supporters claim. Interestingly, this evidence now comes as much from the proponents of globalization as from its opponents. Clearly, poverty and inequality are rapidly accelerating everywhere on Earth. A 1999 report by the United Nations Development Program found that inequalities between rich and poor within and among countries are quickly expanding, and that the global trading and finance system is a primary cause. Even the US Central Intelligence Agency (CIA) confirms the United Nations’ (UN) conclusions, agreeing that globalization brings massive inequalities. “The benefits of globalization do not reach the poor,” says the CIA, ‘and the process inevitably results in increased unrest and protest.’ C. The ideologies and rules of economic globalization - including free trade, deregulation and privatization - have destroyed the livelihoods of millions of people, often leaving them homeless, landless and hungry, while removing their access to the most basic public services like health and medical care, education, sanitation, fresh water and public transport. The records show that economic globalization makes things worse for the poor, not better. Economic globalization has actually succeeded in making global corporations and a few elites wildly wealthy. Of the largest 100 economies m the world,
52 are corporations. This is what the UN describes as the ‘staggering concentration of wealth among the ultra-wealthy’. D. Contrary to claims, wealth generated by globalization does not trickle down. Rather, the wealth is locked at the top, removing from governments and communities the very tools necessary to redistribute it, and in doing so protect domestic industries, social services, the environment and sustainable livelihoods. There may be isolated instances where temporary improvement has been achieved in Third World countries, and, of course, the financial institutions love to trumpet these. The truth, however, is that benefit has been very short-lived and the majority of it has gone to the elites in these countries and to the chief executives of the global corporations at the hub of the process. E. People may point to the ‘Asian Tiger’ economies like Taiwan, South Korea and Singapore as examples of the success of globalization, but the truth is that improvement has not been achieved by assiduously adhering to the dictates of international financial advisors. These economies initially resisted the prescribed economic model and managed to stay free of the volatility of export markets. When they did finally succumb to pressure from the IMF and the World Bank, they found their glory days quickly disappearing into the infamous Asian financial crisis of the late 90s. F. The majority of poor countries have not enjoyed much benefit from globalization, and a growing number of people understand that the system is selling a false promise. The policies of the financial institutions are not designed to benefit them, but to benefit rich industrial countries and their global corporations. The question then is: “Do these globalizing institutions know what they’re doing or do they just mindlessly follow a failed ideological model?”. Many commentators fiercely opposed to globalization now firmly believe that the institutions do indeed know exactly what they’re doing and that they always have. They have an assignment to remove all obstacles to the free flow of capital as they seek to pry open the world’s last natural resource pools, markets and cheap labour. To suggest they do all this to help the poor is high cynicism. G. Perhaps the most traumatic impact of globalization has resulted from local economies being forced to shift from a small-scale diversified agricultural model towards the industrial export model. Half the world’s population still lives directly on the land, growing food for their communities. They grow staples and a mix of diverse crops, and they replant with indigenous seed varieties developed over centuries. They have perfected their own fertilization and pesticide management. Such systems have sustained hundreds of millions of people for millennia. Global corporations must resist local self-sufficiency. Profit is generated by increased processing activity and global trading. We have seen companies spend millions of dollars on publicity professing that small farmers are not productive enough to feed the hungry world. This publicity runs in tandem with the investment and trade strategies of the same companies - strategies that aim to replace local, diverse farming for self-reliance with monocultures. The people who once grew their crops are driven off their land. People who once fed themselves become landless, homeless, jobless and hungry. Dependency and starvation replace self-sufficient livelihoods and self-reliant nations, while global corporations maintain their wealth by shipping luxury items thousands of miles to already overfed markets. Clearly, these corporations are not concerned about feeding the hungry. They are concerned about feeding themselves. The passage has seven sections labelled, A-G. For questions 1-5, choose the correct heading for each section from the list of headings in the box. You do not need to use all the headings. I. Initial gains - ultimate disaster II. A stark contrast between the poor and the super-rich. III. The obliteration of traditional practices IV. The poor must take some responsibility V. Boasts about small victories are misplaced
VI. We know best. Don’t try to stop us. VII. Markets yet to be exploited VIII. Incompetence or a well-planned strategy? IX Parties on both sides can see the short-comings X. Asia leads the way Example: Paragraph B: IX Paragraph G: III 1. Paragraph A : 2. Paragraph C : 3. Paragraph D : 4. Paragraph E : 5. Paragraph F : For questions 6-10, complete the notes. Use NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer. Globalization – two sides of the coin Advocates say: Growth realized only by (6) …………… to business Hope of salvation thwarted by (7) …………… Opponents say: (8) …………… of the system equally sceptical Millions destitute without essential (9) …………… (10) …………… now wealthier than some countries Your answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
Part 5: Answer questions 1-10, by referring to the magazine article in which four successful career women talk about emigrating to New Zealand. A) Nicky Meiring
B) Jenny Orr
C) Sarah Hodgetts D) Lucy Kramer Which woman... 1. mentions a negative point about a job she has had? 2. explains an advantage of choosing to pursue her career in New Zealand? 3. appreciates the approach to achieving goals in New Zealand?
4. expresses a sense of regret about leaving her country? 5. appreciates the honesty she feels exists in New Zealand? 6. denies conforming to a certain stereotype? 7. appreciates New Zealand for its sense of calm and normality? 8. mentions her move to a different area in the same field? 9. states that her original nationality puts her in an advantageous position? 10. recommends that New Zealanders take more pride in their country? The Brain Gain With New Zealand becoming renowned as a great place to live, it was the first-choice destination for a new generation of talented migrants looking for a better life. Sharon Stephenson talks to four of them. A) Nicky Meiring, Architect Listen to Nicky Meiring talk about South Africa and it soon becomes evident that she’s mourning for a country she once called home. ‘The current economic situation has made South Africa quite a hard place to live in,’ she says, ‘but I do miss it.’ Nicky first arrived in Auckland in 1994 and got a job in an architectural practice in Auckland where she soon settled in. She says ‘New Zealand often feels like utopia. I just love the tranquillity and the fact you can lead a safe and ordinary life.’ She lives and works from a renovated factory where her mantelpiece is littered with awards for the design of her summer house on Great Barrier Island. ‘Although the design of buildings is fairly universal, houses here are generally constructed of timber as opposed to brick and when it comes to the engineering of buildings, I have to take great heed of earthquakes which isn’t an issue in South Africa,’ she says. “But the very fact that my training and points of reference are different means I have something to offer. And I’m so glad I have the opportunity to leave my stamp on my new country.” B) Jenny Orr, Art Director American Jenny Orr’s southern accent seems more at home in the movies than in New Zealand’s capital, Wellington. ‘I’m from Alabama, but no, we didn’t run around barefoot and my father didn’t play the banjo!’ she jokes, in anticipation of my preconceptions. Having worked in corporate design for ten years in the USA, she was after a change and thought of relocating to New Zealand. It didn’t take long for her to land a job with an Auckland design firm, where she was able to gain experience in an unfamiliar but challenging area of design -packaging -and before long, she was headhunted to a direct marketing agency which recently transferred her to Wellington. While she admits she could have the same salary and level of responsibility at home, ‘it would probably have been harder to break into this kind of field. I’m not saying I couldn’t have done it, but it may have taken longer in the US because of the sheer number of people paying their dues ahead of me.’ Ask Jenny how she’s contributing to this country’s ‘brain gain’ and she laughs. ‘I don’t see myself as being more talented or intelligent but opposing views are what make strategies, concepts and designs better and I hope that’s what I bring.’ C) Sarah Hodgetts, Creative Planner What happens when all your dreams come true? Just ask Sarah Hodgetts. Sarah says that she had always dreamed of a career in advertising. ‘But I was from the wrong class and went to the wrong university. In the UK, if you’re working class you grow up not expecting greatness in your life. You resign yourself to working at the local factory and knowing your place.’ New Zealand, on the other hand, allowed her to break free of those shackles. ‘It’s a land of opportunity. I quickly learned that if you want to do something here, you just go for it, which is an attitude I admire beyond belief.’ Within a month of arriving, she’d landed a job in customer servicing with an advertising agency. Then, when an opening in research came up, she jumped at the chance. ‘My job is to conduct research with New Zealanders,’ she
explains. ‘So, I get to meet people from across the social spectrum which is incredibly rewarding.’ Being a foreigner certainly works in her favour, says Sarah. ‘Because a lot of my research is quite personal, respondents tend to see me as’ impartial and open-minded and are therefore more willing to share their lives with me.’ She certainly sees New Zealand in a good light. ‘I wish New Zealanders could see their country as I do. That’s why it saddens me that they don’t think they’re good enough on the global stage.’ D) Lucy Kramer, School Director Born in Sydney, Australia, Lucy Kramer left for London when she was 23 to further her career as a stockbroker. ‘London certainly lived up to my expectations and I had a very exciting, very hectic lifestyle,’ Lucy explains. But after four years she felt burnt out and was becoming increasingly disillusioned with her job. ‘People at work were far too competitive for my liking,’ she says. It was at this time she made two life-changing decisions. ‘I signed up for a teacher- training course and shortly after that met my partner, Graeme. He asked me to come back to New Zealand with him and I didn’t hesitate.’ It wasn’t long before she found work in a large Auckland school and, since then, she has rapidly worked her way up to a management position. ‘It’s fair to say I’m not earning what I used to but my New Zealand colleagues are much more easy- going. A good atmosphere more than makes up for the drop-in salary. Another thing that impresses me is that you can leave your stuff on a seat in a cafe and it’ll still be there half an hour later. People are pretty trustworthy here. Sometimes it bothers me that we’re so remote -you can feel a bit cut off from what’s going on in the rest of the world, but on the whole, I’d say it’s one of the best moves I ever made.’ Your answers 1.
2.
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4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
06.
CHUYÊN NGOẠI NGỮ
HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU ●
Bài nghe gồm 4 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mỗi lần cách nhau 30 giây, mở đầu và kết thúc mỗi phần nghe có tín hiệu.
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Mở đầu và kết thúc bài nghe có tín hiệu nhạc. Thí sinh có 3 phút để hoàn chỉnh bài trước tín hiệu nhạc kết thúc bài nghe.
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Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe.
A. LISTENING (50 pts) Part 1: You will hear a group of art history students going around an art gallery with their teacher. For questions 1-5, choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. (10pts) 1. Burne-Jones believed that a painting________. A. ought to be true to nature. B. must have a clear moral point. C. should play an instructive role in a modern industrial society. D. need not have any practical value.
2. It appears that the story of the King and the Beggar Maid was________. A. a well-known Victorian tale. B. popularized by a poet. C. brought to the artist’s attention by his wife. D. taken up by novelists at a later stage. 3. According to the student, how did the painter approach the work? A. He wanted to portray the beggar very realistically. B. He copied parts of the painting from an Italian masterpiece. C. He had certain items in the painting made for him. D. He wanted to decorate the clothing with jewels. 4. The student thinks that in some way the painting depicts________. A. an uncharacteristically personal message B. the great sadness of the artist C. the artist’s inability to return the girl’s love D. the fulfillment of the artist’s hopes and dreams 5. What was people’s reaction to the painting? A. They recognized Frances Graham as the model for the Beggar Maid B. They realized how personal the painting was for the artist C. They interpreted the painting without difficulty D. They did not approve of the subject matter of the painting Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Part 2: Listen to the audio about mobile devices and decide whether the following sentences are true (T) or false (F). (10 pts)
1.
Nowadays the smallest screens have the biggest potential.
2.
Mobile viewing is growing ten times as fast as desktop viewing.
3.
Mobile viewing means there will be less opportunity for companies to sell advertising.
4.
300 hours of video are uploaded every minute on YouTube
5.
Monetization is not a struggle on mobile devices at the moment.
Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Part 3: You will hear an extract from a talk given to a group who are going to stay in the UK. Listen and give short answers to the questions. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER taken from the recording. (10 pts) What TWO factors can make social contact in a foreign country difficult? • 1 ............................... • 2 ............................... Which types of community group does the speaker give examples of? • theatre • music • 3 .................................. In which TWO places can information about community activities be found? • 4 .................................. • 5 .................................. Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
B. LEXICO AND GRAMMAR (30 pts) Part 1: Choose the word/ phrase that best completes each of the following sentences. Write your answer in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 pts) 1. We weren’t close friends but she ________ me well when I left college. A. hoped
B. boded
C. wished
D. bade
2. I don’t want to be too ________ on Alice, but I think I should tell her that her work isn’t good enough. A. stringent
B. stern
C. strict
D. hard
3. The management are making ________ to increase the company’s efficiency. A. measures
B. steps
C. moves
D. deeds
4. I was told yesterday that the car had been fixed but it’s broken down ________ again! A. up
B. still
C. yet
D. on
5. The anthology contains________ the work of modern poets, but it includes a few significant older works as well. A. mostly
B. most
C. at most
D. uppermost
6. Son: “This herb smells horrible!” Mom: “Be that as it may, it will do you a ________ of good” . A. power
B. wealth
C. strike
D. visit
7. As a matter of ________, we have six security guards on the premises at all times. A. wisdom
B. prudence
C. foresight
D. acumen
8. It was such a sad movie that we were all reduced ________ tears. A. for
B. with
C. into
D. to
9. She marched into the shops, as bold as ________, and demanded for her money back. A. bass
B. grass
C.brass
D. glass
10. Jane is out in the garden mulling________ a problem to do ________work. A. over/ with
B. away/ without
C. in/to
D. Into/for
Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
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9.
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Part 3. Complete each of the following sentences with a suitable preposition or particle. Write your answer in the corresponding numbered boxes. (5 pts) 1. I don't think we can run____________ a holiday abroad this year. 2. July is always sending ____________ the French teacher. 3. You will soon take ____________ your new boss, I’m sure. 4. The police tracked ____________ the killer and arrested him. 5. Paul talked me ____________ going skiing, against my better judgement. Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Part 4: Write the correct form of each bracketed word in corresponding numbered boxes. (10 pts) Dickens and his world It was with the circulation of Pickwich Papers in 1836 that young Dickens began to enjoy a truly (1. PRECENDENT) _________ ascent into the favour of the Birtish reading public. He magnificently (2. PROVE) _________ a theory that his fame would disapear just as quickly as it had come. He ramained until his death 34 years later (3. DENY) _________ the most popular noverist the English- speaking world had ever known. The public displayed a/an (4. SATIATE) _________ appetite for his works, and there was also a great diffusion of them through (5. NUMBER) _________ dramatic adaptaions (nearly all completely (6. AUTHORITY) _________ the copyright laws being much weaker in those days). His immense popularity was based on the widespread perception of him as a great champion of the poor and the (7. POSSESS) _________ against all forms of (8. JUST) _________ and abuse of power. In his personal life, however, he was (9. CAPACITY) _________ of achieving the level of fulfiment he enjoyed with the public, and all his close emotional relationships with women (10. VARY) _________ ended in failure. Yet, he created an extraordinary range and variety of female characters who live on in our minds and culture unlike any others created by Victorian novelists.
Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
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8.
9.
10.
C. READING (60pts) Part 1: For questions 1–10, read the following passages and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap. Write your answers (A, B, C, or D) in corresponding numbered boxes. (10pts) CELEBRITY ROLE-MODELS Research in the University of Leicester Department of Media and Communication examined interest in celebrities and gossip about them. It was carried out by Dr Charlotte De Backer who sought in her study to explain interest in celebrity culture. According to Dr De Backer: ‘Life is about learning and (1)_______ experience, and in that process we have a tendency to observe and mimic the actions of others. Ideally we mimic what makes others successful and (2)_______ unsuccessful actions others have trialled and paid for. In reality, humans seem to have the tendency to mimic the overall behaviour pattern of the higher status of those more successful than themselves. This explains why celebrities act as role models for broad (3) _______of behaviour they display whether good or bad.’ Dr De Backer also examined another theory for interest in celebrity, known as the Parasocial Hypothesis. In this (4) _______ , the bonds are parasocial, or one-way, because the celebrity reveals private information, often voluntarily. The audience members respond emotionally to this information, although there is hardly ever any feedback on the private life of the audience going to the celebrity, nor do celebrities (5) _______ emotions towards their audience. Her study of 800 respondents and over 100 interviews (6) _______ that younger participants showed greater interes in celebrity gossip, even if it was about celebrities who were much older than them and even when they did not know who the celebrities were. They showed greatest interest in internationally-known celebrities, because they considered those as more (7) _______. Her study also found that older people were interested in celebrity gossip not because they wanted to learn from the celebrities, but because it helped them to form social networks with other people. ‘We found in the interviews that older people do not gossip about celebrities becuase they want to learn from them or feel (8) _______ by them, but because they use celebrity gossip to (9) _______ with real-life friends and acquaintances. As we live in (10) _______ societies, celebrities can act as our mutual friends and acquaintances.’ 1. A. winning
B. gaining
C. achieving
D. capturing
2. A. escape
B. advoid
C. prevent
D. evade
3. A. reaches
B. domains
C. ranges
D. spheres
4. A. case
B. instance
C. state
D. position
5. A. exhibit
B. present
C. display
D. expose
6. A. reinforced
B. assured
C. validated
D. confirmed
7. A. reputable
B. honourable
C. prestigious
8. A. befriended
B. sustained
C. patronized
D. upheld
9. A. tie
B. link
C. cement
D. bond
10. A. scattered
B. rare
C. mixed
D. idle
D. illustrious
Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
Part 2: Read the text below and think of one word which best fits each space. Use only ONE WORD for each space. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 pts) Busy, busy, busy With obesity having shot up across the globe to dangerously high levels in recent years, it is litle wonded that people have started to ask why. True, (1)______ have changed; we all know that we live in a McWorld, hunting and gathering our food from fast-food outlets and supermarket aisles, but it can’t all be down to diet, can it? Technology has changed modern life to such an extent that few aspects of life today bear any (2)______ to lives only a couple of generations ago. Just taking fobs as an example, how many of us today spend twelve hours a day on our feet physically slogging ourselves (3)______ the ground? Or how many families could you imagine living without a car? Kids walking to school, parents going to half a (4)______ local shops, on foot, to buy the week’s food, family holidays by bus to the nearest seaside town. Take Tina Jameson, a mother of two (5)______ has to juggle home and a part-time job. She says ‘I have’t got time to walk annywhere. But I’d have even (6)______ time without a washing machine or dishwasher’. We now have so many (7)______ in our lives that allow us such drastically better lifestyle choices that at times it can be difficult to picture these in a negative way. Without doubt there are (8)______ to these changes. The number of people who suffer debilitaing injuries at work is miniscule in comparison to the past. Fewer hours working and more efficient transport are all (9)______ our benefit in allowing us a greater amount of leisure time. At what cost though? We may save a few hours day travelling and enjoy less physically demanding working conditons, but is this really (10)_____ it when the cost to our health and life expectancy is so high? Modern lifestyles have become shockingly sedentary and incombinaton with the deterioration in diet this is surely creating a ticking time bomb for modern humanity. Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
Part 3: Read the following passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) according to the text. Write your answers (A, B, C or D) in the corresponding numbered boxes (15pts). From the article "Against the Undertow: Language-Minority Education Policy and Politics in the 'Age of Accountability'" by Terrence G Wiley and Wayne E. Wright Language diversity has always been part of the national demographic landscape of the United States. At the time of the first census in 1790, about 25% of the population spoke languages other than English (Lepore, 2002). Thus, there was a diverse pool of native speakers of other languages at the time of the founding of the republic. Today, nationwide, school districts have reported more than 400 languages spoken by language-minority students classified as limited English proficient (LEP) students (Kindler, 2002). Between 1991 and 2002, total K-12 student enrollment rose only 12%, whereas LEP student enrollment increased 95% during this same time period (National Clearinghouse for English Language Acquisition, 2002b). This rapid increase and changing demographics has intensified the long debate over the best way to educate language-minority students. Historically, many groups attempted to maintain their native languages even as they learned English, and for a time, some were able to do so with relatively little resistance until a wave of xenophobia swept the country during World War 1 (Kloss, 1977/1998). Other groups, Africans, and Native Americans encountered repressive politics much earlier. During the 1960s, a more tolerant policy climate emerged. However, for the past two decades there has been a steady undertow of resistance to bilingualism and bilingual education. This article provides historical background and analyzes contemporary trends in language-minority education within the context of the recent national push for accountability, which typically takes the form of high-stakes testing. The origins of persistent themes regarding the popular antagonisms toward bilingual education and the prescribed panaceas of "English immersion" and high-stakes testing in English need to be scrutinized. As background to the contemporary context, we briefly discuss the history of language politics in the United States and the ideological underpinnings of the dominant monolingual English ideology. We analyze the recent attacks on bilingual education for what this attack represents for educational policy within a multilingual society such as the United States. We emphasize multilingual because most discussions of language policy are framed as if monolingualism were part of our heritage from which we are now drifting. Framing the language policy issues in this way masks both the historical and contemporary reality and positions non-English language diversity as an abnormality that must be cured. Contrary to the steady flow of disinformation, we begin with the premise that even as English has historically been the dominant language in the United States since the colonial era, language diversity has always been a
fact of life. Thus, efforts to deny that reality represent a "malady of mind" (Blaut, 1993) that has resulted in either restrictionist or repressive language policies for minorities. As more states ponder imposing restrictions on languages of instruction other than English-as California, Arizona, and Massachusetts have recently done-it is useful to highlight several questions related to the history of language politics and language planning in the United States. Educational language planning is frequently portrayed as an attempt to solve the language problems of the minority. Nevertheless, the historical record indicates that schools have generally failed to meet the needs of language-minority students (Deschenes, Cuban, & Tyack, 2001) and that the endeavor to plan language behavior by forcing a rapid shift to English has often been a source of language problems that has resulted in the denial of language rights and hindered linguistic access to educational, social, economic, and political benefits even as the promoters of English immersion claim the opposite. The dominance of English was established under the British during the colonial period, not by official decree but through language status achievement, that is, through "the legitimization of a government's decisions regarding acceptable language for those who are to carry out the political, economic, and social affairs of the political process" (Heath, 1976, p.51). English achieved dominance as a result of the political and socioeconomic trade between England and colonial administrators, colonists, and traders. Other languages coexisted with English in the colonies with notable exceptions. Enslaved Africans were prohibited from using their native tongues for fear that it would facilitate resistance or rebellion. From the 1740s forward, southern colonies simultaneously institutionalized "compulsory ignorance" laws that prohibited those enslaved from acquiring English literacy for similar reasons. These restrictive slave codes were carried forward as the former southern colonies became states of the newly United States and remained in force until the end of the Civil War in 1865 (Weinberg, 1977/1995). Thus, the very first formal language policies were restrictive with the explicit purpose of promoting social control. 1. What is the primary purpose of including the statistic from the 1790 census in the introductory paragraph? To explain how colonizing the US eradicated language diversity To show concrete evidence that language diversity in the US is not a new phenomenon To note that before that time, there was no measure of language diversity in the US To demonstrate that census data can be inaccurate 2. The article compares two sets of statistics from the years 1991-2002, increases in K-12 enrollment and increases in LEP students, to highlight. That the two numbers, while often cited in research, are insignificant That while many people with school-age children immigrated to the US during this time, an equal amount left the country as well C) That language diversity had no impact on US student enrollment during this time
D) That while the total amount of students enrolled in US schools may have grown slowly, the amount of those students who were LEP increased dramatically 3. According to the second paragraph, many groups maintained their native languages without resistance into the 20th century EXCEPT__________. A) Native Americans and African Americans B) Irish Americans and African Americans C) Mexican Americans and Native Americas D) Native Americans and Dutch Americans 4. Why is the word "undertow" emphasized in the second paragraph? A) To explain how certain groups continued to carry their native languages with them despite the opposition from those against language diversity B) To show the secretive and sneaky nature of those opposed to language diversity C) To call attention to the ebb and flow of language resistance during the 20th century, experiencing periods of both rest and extremism D) To explain that, while many groups tried to maintain their native languages, many gave in to social and political pressure to use only English 5. What is the best way to describe the function of the third paragraph in this excerpt?. A) The paragraph provides its primary thesis as well an outline of the article's main points B) The paragraph is an unnecessary and irrelevant inclusion C) The paragraph serves to reveal the conclusions of the article before detailing the data D) The paragraph firmly establishes the article's stance against language diversity 6. What is the best summary of why the phrase "multilingualism" is emphasized in the third paragraph? A) Language repression stems from the US's unwillingness to recognize the languages of its foreign allies B) Because language is constantly changing and often goes through multiple phases over time C) The authors firmly believe that speaking more than one language gives students a substantial benefit in higher education. D) Language policy discussions often assumes that the US has a monolinguistic history, which is untrue and poses language diversity as threatening 7. Phrases such as "prescribed panaceas" and "malady of the mind" are used in the third paragraph to__________. A) Defend the point that the US must standardize its language education or there will be severe results B) Point out that language is as much a physical process as an intellectual one C) Illustrate how certain opponents of language diversity equate multilingual education with a kind of
national disease D) Demonstrate how the stress of learning multiple languages can make students ill 8. According to the fourth paragraph, all of the following are potential negatives of rapid English immersion EXCEPT__________. A) It can lead to a denial of language rights for particular groups B) Students become more familiar with conversational expressions and dialect C) It can prevent access to certain benefits that are always available to fluent speakers D) It can promote feelings of alienation among groups that are already in a minority status 9. The best alternate definition of "language status achievement" is __________. A) When enough scholarly work has been produced in a language, it is officially recognized B) Those who are in power socially and economically determine the status of a language C) Languages fall into a hierarchy depending upon the numbers of populations that speak them D) The position of a language in which no others may coexist with it 10. From the context of the final paragraph, what does "compulsory ignorance" mean? A) Populations at the time were required only to obtain a certain low level of education B) Slave populations were compelled to only speak in their native languages and not learn English C) That slaves were forcibly prevented from developing their native language skills out of fear that they would gain power D) Slave owners would not punish slaves who did not wish to learn and speak only English
Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
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5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
Part 4 : Read the following passage and do the tasks that follows. Write your answer in the space provided. (15 pts) Ford – driving innovation 1. In 1913 an American industrialist named Henry Ford employed an innovative system in his factory that changed the nature of American industry forever – the production line. Instead of a group of workers constructing a complete product, Ford’s production-line techniques relied on machine parts being moved around the factory on a conveyor belt, passing each employee who had a single task to perform before the component moved down the line. This saved time in that employees were not required to move around, collect materials or change tools; they simply stood in one place and repeated the same procedure over and over again until the end of their shift. In this way, Ford was able to mass produce the now famous Model-T car for only 10% of traditional labour costs.
2. Working on a production line was monotonous work, undoubtedly, but it was not in the production line alone that Ford was something of a pioneer. In 1913 the average hourly rate for unskilled labour was under $2.50 and for such low wages and repetitive work, the labour turnover in Ford’s factory was high, with many employees lasting less than a month. In order to combat this problem, he took a step that was condemned by other industrialists of the time, fearful that they would lose their own workforce – he raised wages to $5 an hour. The benefits were twofold. Not only did Ford now have a stable and eager workforce, he also had potential customers. It was his intention ‘to build a motorcar for the great multitude’, and the Model-T car was one of the cheapest cars on the market at the time. At $5 an hour, many of his employees now found themselves in a position to feasibly afford a car of their own. Ford’s production practices meant that production time was reduced from 14 hours to a mere 93 minutes. In 1914 company profits were $30 million, yet just two years later this figure had doubled. Until 1927 when the last Model-T rolled off the production line, the company produced and sold about 15 million cars. 3. Although Ford was without doubt successful, times changed and the company began losing its edge. One problem came from the labour force. Ford was a demanding employer who insisted that the majority of his staff remained on their feet during their shift. One error meant that the whole production line was often kept waiting, and Ford felt that workers were more attentive standing than sitting. Yet the 1930s saw some radical changes in the relationships between employer and employee, as an increasing number of industries were forming Labour Unions. Ford flatly refused to get involved, employing spies in the workplace to sabotage any plans for a union within his factories. Eventually a strike in the early 1940s forced Ford to deal with unions. Another example of Ford being unable to adapt came from his unwillingness to branch out. Ford’s competitors began operating the same systems and practices, but also introduced the variety Ford was lacking. The Model-T had remained essentially the same, even down to the colour, and by the time he realised his error, he had already lost his pre-eminence in the industry. Subsequent involvement in aeroplane manufacturing, politics and publishing was a failure. Leaving the company to his grandson in 1945, he died two years later leaving an inheritance estimated at $700 million. 4. Yet the legacy of Fordism lives on. The development of mass production transformed the organisation of work in a number of important ways. Tasks were minutely subdivided and performed by unskilled workers, or at least semiskilled workers, since much of the skill was built into the machine. Second, manufacturing concerns grew to such a size that a large hierarchy of supervisors and managers became necessary. Third, the increasing complexity of operations required employment of a large management staff of accountants, engineers, chemists, and, later, social psychologists, in addition to a large distribution and sales force. Mass production also heightened the trend towards an international division of labour. The huge new factories often needed raw materials from abroad, while saturation of national markets led to a search for
customers overseas. Thus, some countries became exporters of raw materials and importers of finished goods, while others did the reverse. 5. In the 1970s and ’80s some countries, particularly in Asia and South America, that had hitherto been largely agricultural and that had imported manufactured goods, began industrialising. The skills needed by workers on assembly-line tasks required little training, and standards of living in these developing countries were so low that wages could be kept below those of the already industrialised nations. Many large manufacturers in the United States and elsewhere therefore began ‘outsourcing’ – that is, having parts made or whole products assembled in developing nations. Consequently, those countries are rapidly becoming integrated into the world economic community Choose the correct heading for paragraphs B-F from the list of headings below. Write the correct number, i-ix, next to Questions 1-5. List of Headings i. Effect on modern industry ii. New payment procedures iii. Labour problems iv. The Model-T v. Creating a market vi. Revolutionary production techniques vii. The Ford family today viii.
Impact on the global economy
ix. Overseas competition 1. Paragraph A 2. Paragraph B 3. Paragraph C 4. Paragraph D 5. Paragraph E Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
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Questions 6-10: Complete the summary below. Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer. Write your answer in the space provided. The application of (6)______________ and pay rise scheme enabled Ford to generate mass production. However, the issues related to the labor force and (7) the______________ to start doing something new drove Ford to the verge of crisis. One of the long-term effects of Ford’s business practices was that many
developing countries became industrialised as a result of (8) ______________ some work to other countries. For those working in the factory, the skills for (9) ______________ were easily acquired and (10) ______________ was minimal. Part 5: Read the text below and answer questions (10pts). Consultant A A university degree is no guarantee of a job, and job hunting in itself requires a whole set of skills. If you find you are not getting past the first interview, ask yourself what is happening. Is it a failure to communicate or are there some skills you lack? Once you see patterns emerging it will help you decide whether the gaps you have identified can be filled relatively easily. If you cannot work out what the mismatch is, get back to the selection panel with more probing questions, and find out what you need to do to bring yourself up to the level of qualification that would make you more attractive to them: but be careful to make this sound like a genuine request rather than a challenge or complaint. Consultant B Do not be too dispirited if you are turned down for a job, but think about the reasons the employers give. They often say it is because others are 'better qualified', but they use the term loosely. Those who made the second interview might have been studying the same subject as you and be of similar ability level, but they had something which made them a closer match to the selector's ideal. That could be experience gained through projects or vacation work, or it might be that they were better at communicating what they could offer. Do not take the comments at face value: think back to the interviews that generated them and make a list of where you think the shortfall in your performance lies. With this sort of analytical approach you will eventually get your foot in the door. Consultant C Deciding how long you should stay in your first job is a tough call. Stay too long and future employers may question your drive and ambition. Of course, it depends where you are aiming. There can be advantages in moving sideways rather than up, if you want to gain real depth of knowledge. If you are a graduate, spending five or six years in the same job is not too long provided that you take full advantage of the experience. However, do not use this as an excuse for apathy. Graduates sometimes fail to take ownership of their careers and take the initiative. It is up to you to make the most of what's available within a company, and to monitor your progress in case you need to move on. This applies particularly if you are still not sure where your career path lies. Consultant D It is helpful to think through what kind of experience you need to get your dream job and it is not a problem to move around to a certain extent. But in the early stages of your career you need a definite strategy for reaching your goal, so think about that carefully before deciding to move on from your first job. You must cultivate patience to master any role. There is no guarantee that you will get adequate
training, and research has shown that if you do not receive proper help in a new role, it can take 18 months to master it. Consultant E A prospective employer does not want to see that you have changed jobs every six months with no thread running between them. You need to be able to demonstrate the quality of your experience to a future employer, and too many moves too quickly can be a bad thing. In any company it takes three to six months for a new employee to get up to speed with the structure and the culture of the company. From the company's perspective, they will not receive any return on the investment in your salary until you have been there for 18 months. This is when they begin to get most value from you - you are still fired up and enthusiastic. If you leave after six months it has not been a good investment - and may make other employers wary. (Source: CAE Handbook. Reproduced with permission from Cambridge English) For questions 1–10, identify which section A–E each of the following is mentioned. Write ONE letter A–E in the space provided. Each letter may be used more than once. According to the text, which section(s) mention the following?
Your answers
Keep your final objective in mind when you are planning to change jobs
1.
It takes time to become familiar with the characteristics of a company you 2. have joined. You should demonstrate determination to improve your job prospects.
3.
Make sure your approach for information is positive in tone.
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It is not certain that you will be given very much support in your job initially.
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Stay optimistic in spite of setbacks.
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Promotion isn't the only way to increase your expertise.
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Ask for information about your shortcomings.
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Some information you are given may not give a complete picture.
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It will be some time before you start giving your employers their money's 10. worth. D. WRITING (60 pts) Part :For questions 1-3, complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given. Do not change the word given. You must use between three and eight words, including the word given. There is an example at the beginning (0).(5pts) 0.‘Why don’t we have a picnic this weekend?’ said Andy
(HAVING)
Andy suggested ………having a picnic that……….. weekend. 1.If something’s worrying you, you should tell me about it now.
(CHEST)
-> If you have a problem, why don’t you _____________________________________ now? 2. I think you should confront your boss right now with how you feel about it. (OUT) -> Why don’t you _____________________________________ your boss right now? 3. Anna had decided Tom was not telling the truth about what happened.
(TEETH)
-> Anna was sure Tom _____________________________________ about what happened. For questions 4 – 5, use the word(s) given in brackets and make any necessary additions to write a new sentence in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence. Do NOT change the form of the given word(s). 4. When they broke the news, she stayed perfectly calm and controlled. (HAIR) _____________________________________________________________. 5. She wasn’t speaking seriously. (TONGUE) _____________________________________________________________. Part 2. Chart description.(20pts) The table below shows the weight of people in a particular country from 1999 to 2009. Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make comparisons where relevant. Write at least 150 words.
-The end-
07.
CHUYÊN HÙNG VƯƠNG - PHÚ THỌ
PART ONE. LISTENING (50p.) Question 1. For questions 1-5, listen to a discussion on the subject of identity and the labels that identify groups of people in society and choose the correct answer A, B, C, or D which fits best according to what your hear. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (10p.)
1. What does Marc suggest about being labelled as ‘a philosopher’? A. It’s the label he uses most often. B. It’s not a label he could use in other contexts. C. It’s the label that best describes what he does. D. It’s only one of various labels he sometimes uses. 2. Elena suggests that the term ‘pigeonholed’ is used by people who A. prefer not to use labels. B. dislike the labels they have chosen. C. resent having labels applied to them. D. feel that they don’t fit under any labels. 3. Marc and Elena agree that a very strong sense of identity can A. leave people unprepared for changing circ*mstances. B. have adverse effects on relationships at work. C. make people too quick to categorise others. D. lead to tensions in aspects of family life. 4. When asked about labelling by the media, Elena reveals A. a determination to make it more sensitive. B. a concern about the social consequences. C. a feeling that it isn’t greatly significant. D. an acceptance that it has a part to play. 5. In his concluding comments, Marc suggests that labels of identity A. allow the individual to fit into society. B. help the individual to prioritise things in life. C. prevent the individual from being truly unique. D. stop the individual from becoming too self-obsessed Your answers: 1.
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Questions 2. For questions 1-5, listen to a complaint from a woman called Julie Gold and decide whether these statements are True (T) or False (F). Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (10p.) 1. Her complaint today was about a car booking in Baker Road. 2. The car she wanted to use was not in the correct location. 3. The advisor assumes that the previous car user was not able to park in the correct place. 4. Julie was shocked to discover that the car had been heavily damaged. 5. The advisor says that the caller will not be charged for today’s booking.
Your answers: 1.
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Question 3: You will hear an interview with a man called Mark Phillips, who is talking about his work as a potter. Answer the questions (1-5) with NO MORE THAN FIVE WORDS. (10p.) 1. Why did pottery not appeal to Mark when he was younger? _________________________________________________________ 2. What was his mother’s advice when he decided to take up pottery? _________________________________________________________ 3. How does Mark describe the pots he makes? _________________________________________________________ 4. What has surprised Mark about the pottery community? _________________________________________________________ 5. In the future, what would Mark like to be able to? _________________________________________________________ PART TWO. LEXICO – GRAMMAR (30p.) Question 1. Choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence. Write your answers (A, B, C, or D) in the space provided under this part. (10p.) The Higg Boson become hot ____ talk following the release of a series of Hollywood movies 1. based loosely around the discovery of a so-called “Good Particle”. A. common B. topic C. table D. subject 2. A few of older campers were sent home after a week as they were ____ A. lenient B.unruly C. erratic D. indulgent 3. The barriers suddenly collapsed and the crowd of supporters ____ forward on to the pitch. A. swirled B. gushed C. trickle D. surged 4. Archaeology is one is one of the most interesting scientific ____ A. divisions B. disciplines C. matters D. compartments 5. The projects has progressed in ___ and starts due to a constant change in funding. A. wits B. bits C. fits D. sits It’s as if that silly argument we had has driven a ___ between us and we’ve lost all our old 6. closeness. A. ledge B. beam C. plank D. wedge 7. The country is an economic ___ with chronic unemployment and rampant crime. A. lost cause B. false dawn C. dark horse D. basket case 8. I ___ and drew my foot out quickly. The bath water was so hot. A. tingled B. ached C. writhed D. pained 9. We managed to ___ the last economical depression by cutting down our workforce. A. surmount B. override C. float D. weather The renewed in Elizabethan times is evident in the ___ of new Hollywood film set during that 10. period. A. transience B. spate C. hypocrisy D. demise
Question 3. Fill in each gap with ONE preposition to finish the following sentences. Write your answers in the space provided. (5p.) 1. They chalked the poor sales ______ the lower number of tourists visiting this year. 2. When the cost was set ______ the benefits, the scheme looked good. 3. The students wrestled ______ the difficult mathematics problem. 4. There’s nothing to swot ______ as it’s a general knowledge quiz. 5. Don’t try to palm me ______ with your lies and excuses. Your answers 1.
2.
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Question 4. Use the correct form of each bracketed word in the numbered space. Write your answers in the space provided. (10p.) The standard of television programming _______ (1. product) in this country is in terminal decline. The _______ (2. shed) has become a meaningless term confined in its applicability to _______ (3. go) days when adult content felt the full force of ________ (4. censor) and was not allowed to appear on the box until after 9:00 p.m. Nowadays, however, it seems anything goes any time. And, truth told, whatever anything is, it seldom 'goes' for much longer than a half hour or so at any rate before it is interrupted by a ______ (5. commerce) break. And don't even get me started on those appalling _______ (6. inform) most of the networks run right the way through the night, one after another, for up to thirty minutes at a time. lt is _______ (7.true) painful. Terrestrial television is now, as far as I am concerned, a laughing stock. All the quality has been bought up by the satellite networks, with their big-money weight behind them, but even here _______ (8. pick) are slim. In protest at the dire state of things, I have become a converted _______ (9. net). I look to the web now to find good content. There, I can find just enough re-run of quality programmes to prevent myself from falling into utter despair and pining for the good old days of _______ (10. year). Your answers 1.
6.
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PART THREE: READING (60p.) Question 1. Read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap. Write your answers in the space provided. (10p.) Greenhouse gases are being released into the atmosphere 30 times faster than the time when the Earth experiences a (1) ______ episode of global warming. A study comparing the rate at which carbon dioxide and methane are being (2) ______ now, compared to 55 million years ago when global warming also occurred, has found dramatic differences in the speed of release. James Zachos, professor of earth
sciences at the University of California, Santa Cruz, said the speed of present buildup of greenhouse gases is far greater than during the global warming after the (3) ______ of the dinosaurs. “The emissions that caused this past episode of global warming probably lasted 10,000 years,” Professor Zachos told the American Association for the Advancement of Science at a meeting in St. Louis. “By burning fossil fuels, we are likely to emit the same amount over the next three centuries.” He warned that studies of global warming events in the geological past (4) ______ the Earth’s climate passes a (5) ______ beyond which climate change accelerates with the help of positive feedbacks - vicious circles of warming. Professor Zachos is a leading (6) ______ on the episode of global warming known as the palaeoence-eocene thermal maximum, when average global temperatures increased by up to 50C due to a massive release of carbon dioxide and methane. His research into the deep ocean (7) ______ suggests at this time that about 4.5 billion tons of carbon entered the atmosphere over 10,000 years. “This will be the same amount of carbon released into the atmosphere from cars and industrial emissions over the next 300 years if present (8) ______ continue”, he said. Although carbon can be released suddenly and naturally into the atmosphere from volcanic activity, it takes many thousands of years for it to be removed permanently by natural processes. The ocean is capable of removing carbon, and quickly, but this natural (9) ______ can be easily (10) ______, which is probably what happened 55 million years ago. “It will take tens of thousands of years before atmospheric carbon dioxide comes down to preindustrial levels,” the professor said. “Even after humans stop burning fossil fuels, the effects will be long-lasting.” 1. A. prearranged 2. A. emitted 3. A. dementia 4. A. comment 5. A. barricade 6. A. autocrat 7. A. dusts 8. A. trends 9. A. capacity 10. A. overcharged
B. premier B. exhaled B. demolition B. mark B. verge B. authority B. sediments B. gadgets B. competence B. overstated
C. previous C. incorporated C. detachment C. compliment C. threshold C. administrator C. dirt C. fads C. intelligence C. overshadowed
D. fundamental D. digested D. demise D. indicate D. perimeter D. proprietor D. powder D. crazes D. bulk D. overwhelmed
Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
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Question 2. Fill each of the numbered blanks in the following passage with one suitable word. Write your answers in the space provided. (15p.) The world-famous credit card company Mastercard is removing its name from its company logo. It will follow the likes of Apple and Nike to have a logo (1) _______ has a symbol only and no writing. Mastercard had traditionally (2) _______ a logo that had overlapping yellow and red circles with the word “Mastercard" written over the top. The company has decided to drop the word "Mastercard" (3) ______ use just the two intersecting circles as a wordless logo. The new logo will be used as the brand's (4)______ on credit cards and in stores, as well as on advertising at sports and (5) _______ events. The company's marketing officer said over 80 per cent of people spontaneously recognized the new symbol (6) ______ the word "Mastercard". Mastercard conducted extensive research for more than 20 months (7) _____ how recognizable the new logo would be without its name being on it. The
new logo is part of a wider strategy to transition from (8) _______ a credit card company to a digital payments and financial services company. The world is now full of instantly recognizable logos that contain no words. Apple's bitten apple logo and Nike's swoosh (9) _______ prime examples. Most of the logos of apps on people's smartphones are just symbols. A design expert spoke about maximizing the effect of a small (10) _______ on a phone or watch. He said: "You're trying to optimize for a very small piece of real estate on a very small piece of glass. A 10-letter name is kind of a monster." Your answers: 1.
2.
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Question 3. Read the following passage and choose the best answer A, B, C or D for each question. Write your answers in the space provided. (10p.) The stylistic innovation in paining known as Impressionism began in the 1870’s. The Impressionists wanted to depict what they saw in nature, but they were inspired to portray fragmentary moments by the increasingly fast pace of modern life. They concentrated on the play of light over objects, people, and nature, breaking up seemingly solid surfaces, stressing vivid contrast between colors in sunlight and shade, and depiction reflected light in all of its possibilities. Unlike earlier artists, they did not want to observe the world from indoors. They abandoned the studio, painting in the open air and recording spontaneous Impressions of their subjects instead of making outside sketches and then moving indoors to complete the work form memory. Some of the Impressionists’ painting methods were affected by technological advances. For example, the shift from the studio to the open air was made possible in part by the advent of cheap rail travel, which permitted easy and quick access to the countryside or seashore, as well as by newly developed chemical dyes and oils that ledto collapsible paint tubes, which enabled artists to finish their paintings on the spot. Impressionism acquired its name not from supporters but from angry art lovers who felt threatened by the new painting. The term “Impressionism” was born in 1874,when a group of artists who had been working together organized an exhibition of their paintings in order to draw public attention to their work. Reaction from the public and press was immediate, and derisive. Among the 165 paintings exhibited was one called Impression: Sunrise, by Claude Monet (1840-1926), Viewed through hostile eyes, Monet’s painting of a rising sun over a misty, watery scene seemed messy, slapdash, and an affront to good taste. Borrowing Monet’s title, art critics extended the term “Impressionism” to the entire exhibit. In response, Monet and his 29 fellow artists in the exhibit adopted the same name as a badge of their unity, despite individual differences. From then until 1886 Impressionism had all the zeal of a “church”, as the painter Renoir put it. Monet was faithful to the Impressionist creed until his death, although many of the others moved on to new styles. 1. What aspect of painting in the nineteenth century does the passage mainly discuss? A. The impact of some artists’ resistance to the fast pace of life B. The differences between two major styles of art C. A technological advance in the materials used by artists D. A group of artists with a new technique and approach to art 2. The word “depict” in line 2 is closest in meaning to
A. reorganize B. deform C. represent D. justify 3. According to the passage, which of the following was one of the distinguishing characteristics of Impressionist painting? A. The emphasis on people rather than nature scenes B. The way the subjects were presented from multiple angles C. The focus on small solid objects D. The depiction of the effects of light and color 4. Which of the following is a significant way in which Impressionists were different from the artists that preceded them? A. They began by making sketches of their subjects B. They painted their subjects out-of-doors C. They preferred to paint from memory D. They used subjects drawn from modern life 5. The word “advent” in line 13 is closest in meaning to A. achievement B. acceptance C. arrival D. advantage 6. The exhibition of paintings organized in 1874 resulted in all of the following EXCEPT A. attracting attention from the public B. a negative reaction from the press C. an immediate demand for the paintings exhibited D. creating a name for a new style of painting 7. The word “affront” in line 23 is closest in meaning to A. insult B. encouragement C. return D. credit 8. The rejection of the Impressionist exhibition by critics was caused by which of the following? A. The small number of paintings on display B. Lack of interest in exhibitions by young artists C. The similarity between all the paintings exhibited D. Anger about seemingly poorly painted art 9. The author mentions Renoir in line 27 to give an example of an artist who A. became as famous as Monet B. was consistently praised by art critics C. described the enthusiasm of the Impressionists for their work D. was in favor of a traditional style of painting 10. The word “others” in line 28 refers to A. art critics B. fellow artists C. individual differences D. new styles
Your answers: 1.
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10.
Question 4. You are going to read a newspaper article about the effect of having a dog in the classroom. For question 1-10 choose from the paragraphs (A-G). The paragraphs may be chosen more than once. (10p.)
Paws for thought Buying a dog for a school isn’t a barking mad idea, says Mary Braid. Man’s best friend is also a useful classroom assistant. A Henry is the undisputed star of Dronfield school near Sheffield. Whatever the achievements of other members of the comprehensive school, it is Henry with his soulful eyes and glossy hair, who has hogged the limelight, appearing on television in Britain and abroad. Yet despite all the public adulation, Henry stirs up no envy or resentment among the 2,000 students at Dronfield High – in fact, they all adore him. The pupils say the Cavalier King Charles spaniel is simply a pupil’s best friend. Their teachers make even bigger assertions for Henry. They say the dog, who first arrived six months ago, is a super dog, who has improved pupil behaviour and encouraged more students to turn up regularly for their lessons and focus on their academic achievement. B ‘It’s hard not to drift off in a large class sometimes’, explains Andrew Wainwright, 15, who like everyone ebe, is crazy about Henry. ‘So when I go to catch-up classes, Henry is always in the room where they’re held. He helps me focus and get on with it.’ Andrew says Henry is a calming influence although he is unsure of why this might be. But he knows that there’s something magical about being able to throw Henry a soft toy or have Henry lick his hand while he is studying. ‘If we fall behind, Miss Brown won’t let us look after him and everyone wants to walk Henry.’ C Wendy Brown is Andrew’s teacher. It was Brown and Julie Smart, the school counsellor, who first proposed buying a school dog. ‘Julie and I grew up with dogs and we were talking one day about how looking after dogs can affect children’s conduct,’ says Brown. ‘We did some research and discovered that the presence of pets has been shown to be therapeutic. A number of studies have found that animals improve recovery after surgery or illness and have a calming influence on people in lots of settings. Some of my kids can be a handful and some of the children Julie counsels have terrible problems.’ D The two teachers could have plucked a dog from a rescue centre but felt that those dogs were more likely to have difficulties. What they and what troubled children needed was a stable, intelligent, people-loving animal. Step forward then puppy Henry, purchased from a local breeder, Julie looks after him after school hours – information that has calmed the animal lovers who complained to the school about Henry’s treatment. ‘They seemed to think we locked him in a school cupboard overnight,’ says Brown. ‘Also, the school budget was too tight to buy a dog and you can imagine that putting one before books might have stirred some people a bit. We wanted the least controversy possible so we settled on approaching local churches. They donated the funds to buy him and his favourite food.’ E Today Henry is on Dronfield’s front line when it comes to helping children struggling with everything from attention problems to a sudden death in the family. In the next few weeks, the dog will launch his own confidential counselling website, Ask Henry. Pupils will be encouraged to email and describe whatever is worrying them and Julie will answer on Henry’s behalf. Wouldn’t teenagers run horrified from such a scheme? Apparently not when Henry is involved! ‘Henry has been a massive success,’ insists Brown, explaining that even doubting staff have finally been won round. Perhaps that is because Henry, who lies on the floor during staff meetings, has also had a calming influence on teachers, ‘Not part of the plan,’ says Brown, ‘but a very welcome benefit.’ F Could the school dog become a craze? Brown has already been contacted by eight schools keen to get their own dog. Other schools such as the Mulberry Bush, a primary school for 36 children with emotional and behavioural problems, have stepped forward to point out they already have one. Rosie Johnston, a Mulberry staff member, first brought her golden retriever, Muskoka, into school when he was just nine weeks old. That was three years ago. Aside from being a calming influence, Muskoka
even plays his part in literacy lessons. Children at the school can be too shy to read to adults so they read to Muskoka. ‘Their anxiety about mispronouncing something or getting the words in the wrong order is reduced when they read to him,’ says Johnston. G Psychologist Dr Deborah Wells from Queen’s University Belfast specializes in animal-human interaction. She believes the underlying key to the Henry’s effect is that dogs offer unconditional live and that cheers up adults and children and helps with self-esteem. But traditionalist Chris Woodhead, the former chief inspector of schools says, ‘I can see how children with behavioral difficulties might be helped but I’m skeptical about the use of dogs in mainstream education. I don’t see why a teacher cannot create a positive learning environment through the subject they teach and their personality. Dogs strike me as a bit of a publicity stunt. It’s the kind of sentimental story journalists love.’ But Henry remains as popular as ever. He’s just become the first animal to be made as an honorary member of the public services union Unison – in recognition of his services as a canine classroom assistant. a way that students can overcome their fear of making mistakes the criteria regarding the selection of an appropriate dog the claim that a dog has increased the students’ attendance at school a motivating reason for students to keep up with their school work evidence to back up the theory that dogs can improve physical well-being people eventually being persuaded that a dog at school is beneficial a decision which was taken to avoid provoking people the accusation that schools have dogs just to attract media attention a welcome positive effect on a group of people that Wendy Brown had not anticipated the fundamental reason why dogs can have a positive impact on people’s happiness
1. _____ 2. _____ 3. _____ 4. _____ 5. _____ 6. _____ 7. _____ 8. _____ 9. _____ 10. _____
Your answers 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
Question 5. You are going to read an extract from a magazine article. Five paragraphs have been removed from the extract. Choose from the paragraph A-F the one which fits each gap (1-5). There is one extra paragraph which you do not need to use. Write your answers in the space provided. (15p.) The boy who broke every rule in the book Was Nicholas Culpeper a medical rebel who challenged the establishment, or simply a quack, asks Scarlett Thomas. Anyone who has ever used peppermint tea to ease indigestion or taken chamomile for a good night’s sleep has been using herbal medicine. However suspicious some of us may be of a complete system of ‘alternative’ healing, we all know that, for example, vinegar is good on wasp stings, and honey helps a sore throat. 1
These are questions which have persisted for centuries. Who has the right to medical knowledge? And how could you make sure you were in safe hands? It is to the 16th century, with its complex medical system of quacks, midwives, apothecaries and a few physicians, that Benjamin Wooley first takes us in his book The Herbalist. We learn of Henry VIII’s answer to the problem of national regulation: the creation of the College of Physicians, the members of which were given licensing and fining powers – but not the power to dispense medicines, which was instead held by the apothecaries, the pharmacists of the time. Mutual distrust and rivalry between these groups seem to have defined the medical system of the next, 100 years. It wasn’t until the great plague that things were shaken up. London was left almost empty of doctors, with only apothecaries still providing medical care. Although they were supposed to practise only in accordance with the Pharmacopoeia Londinensis, a huge book of instructions and recipes created by the College of Physicians, most apothecaries did not actually read Latin. This inability meant that they could not in fact read the book. 2 Even without Latin, most apothecaries had some idea of what their medicines did. And despite not understanding the Latin slurs on their characters in the Pharmacopoeia, the apothecaries also knew that the College had it in for them. In 1634, Nicholas Culpeper, aged 18, arrived in London with £50 in his pocket, looking for an apprenticeship. He soon became an apprentice to an apothecary, becoming familiar with long lists of ‘simple’ ingredients set out in the Pharmacopoeia, including bizarre items like human blood and earthworms. 3 So eventually abandoning his apprenticeship and despite all the rules created by the College of Physicians, Culpeper set up on his own as an ‘independent’, trading out of a shop in London’s Threadneedle Street. His aim was to provide medical help for anyone who needed it and to treat people with simply prepared, locally sourced medicines. This career was interrupted by a stint as a soldier in the Civil War. It was shortly after it ended in 1649 that there was a widespread call for all legal matters to be conducted in English, so justice could be heard and understood by all. 4 When it appeared, it was twice as long as the original, bulging with additions and corrections. It also explained what the recipes were for. “In translating the book,” Woolley notes, “Nicholas broke every rule in it.” This was seen not just as a medical and but a deeply political one. The College of Physicians was outraged. 5 Was Culpeper a quack? No more so than the medical establishment of the time, argues Woolley. It was the College’s Pharmacopoeia after all that recommended the use of the treatments based on ground gall stones of Persian goats that surely led to King Charles II’s death. Yet Culpeper’s legacy – the idea that medicine is not something that should be controlled by the elite but something belonging to everybody – is as important now as it was in the 17th century. A Perhaps this was fortunate, as the book warned of the deceit of those people who are allowed to sell the most filthy concoctions, and even mud, under the name and title of medicaments for the sake of profit. This was undoubtedly an attack on the capabilities and moral principles of the apothecaries. B As odd as these may seem, many recipes would also call for the drug opium, which at the time, cost less than garden rhubarb. Culpeper did not have a good experience at this time, being assigned a new master on several occasions. Then again, this was probably not a good time for anyone to be in his
position, when rules meant you could be summoned to a company ‘court’ for having ‘stubbornness and long hair’. C The English Physician, Culpeper’s later book, better known as Culpeper’s Complete Herbal, did little to pacify them. It outlined not only the uses of healing plants but also Culpeper’s holistic view of medicine. Despite upsetting the establishment, it became one of the most popular and enduring books in British history. D When things get more serious, of course, most people rush to the doctor. But what if the doctor gets it wrong? Or imagine a situation when, for whatever reasons, you wanted to find out how to use other plants to heal yourself. E It reveals a profound insight into the trade practices of the time, and how the establishment view of who should be allowed to trade and under what conditions affected everything. This was especially true concerning the health of people denied control over their medical treatment. F Impressed by this, Culpeper’s thoughts turned to a similar democratization of medical texts. These thoughts would be made reality when he was commissioned to produce an English edition of the Pharmacopoeia. Your answers 1.
2.
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PART IV: WRITING (60p.) Question 2. The table below shows the worldwide market share of the notebook computer market for manufacturers in the years 2006 and 2007. Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make comparisons where relevant. You should write about 150 words. (15p.)
Company
2006 % Market Share
2007 % Market Share
HP
31.4
34
Dell
16.6
20.2
Acer
11.6
10.7
Toshiba
6.2
7.3
Lenovo
6.6
6.2
Fujitsu-Siemens
4.8
2.3
Others
22.8
19.3
O8.
CHUYÊN VĨNH PHÚC
I.
LISTENING
PART 1: You will hear two people speaking about their fondness for trains. Each given question has four options A, B, C and D. Choose the best option for each question. You will hear the audio twice. 1) What point does Philip make about the people who are involved in the locomotive side of trains? A) Some avoid doing it because its too dirty. B) Some worry about the dangers involved. C) Some find it to be an instinctive activity. D) Some only do it for the financial rewards it brings. 2) When Mike discusses why he enjoys the world of trains, what contrast does he identify between the different groups of people he interacts with? A) A difference in social status. B) A difference in ages. C) A difference in technical ability. D) A difference in motivation. 3) What view is stated by Mike about how the railway has helped him in his role as a parent? A) It has helped him develop a closer relationship with his daughter. B) It has taught him patience. C) It has helped him focus on his daughters career possibilities. D) It has given him stability in his life. 4) When discussing different aspects of the railway, both speakers agree that A) Age does not need to be a handicap. B) Both men and women are equally welcome. C) It can be quite demanding. D) Cleanliness is not the first adjective that springs to mind. 5) What final conclusion do both speakers reach about volunteering on the railway? A) The time they have spent has been difficult but worth it. B) They have both learnt a lot. C) They are better people for having been involved with it. D) It has helped them grow while at the same time giving them a direction for the future. PART 2: You will hear a lecture about study. Decide whether the statements are TRUE or FALSE.You will hear the audio twice. 1. In the past, time management meant you needed to set goals and try to achieve these goals. 2. In this college, students are assigned team projects at the end of each semester. 3. The kind of suggestion the lecturer gives to the students is a regular one-hour session in their personal timetables. 4. If you want to set an overview of your time, you should need at least half a week.
5. According to the lecturer, the benefit that wise time management may have is having more time to spend on relaxation and other activities. PART 3: You will hear Tim Cole talking about guidebooks. Answer the following questions with short answers of NO MORE THAN FIVE WORDS.You will hear the audio twice. 1. What place did Tim want to find that turned out to be a comedy club when he used a guidebook in Australia? _________________________________________ 2. When must the publication date be for a guidebook to be bought? _________________________________________ 3. What does Tim particularly dislike about guidebooks? _________________________________________ 4. What are other things that should be included in guidebooks? _________________________________________ 5. What way of searching travel advice does Tim suggest to Hawaii visitors? _________________________________________ II.
LEXICO-GRAMMAR
Exercise 1: Choose the best option to complete the sentences. 1. The spacecraft _________ into space and then spent three days getting to the Moon. a. hurled
b. threw
c. blasted
d. orbited
2. Did you ever realise you have an uncanny _________ of coming down to the kitchen just as I am about to serve dinner? Very strange! a. habit
b. knack
c. trick
d. routine
3. __________ on by my husband, I applied for the job I had always dreamt of having. a. begged
b. obliged
c. urged
d. pleaded
4. __________ by both financial and emotional problems, the father decided he had had enough and slipped away from the house quietly at dawn. a. pressured
b. beset
c. filled
d. drowned
5. I felt let down by a very unsupportive boardroom, ___________ by the very chairman himself, Wilson Gray. I had no choice but to resign. a. at most
b. not least
c. notwithstanding d. henceforth
6. Out upon the cloud covered hills, we only caught the occasional glimpse of the town lights ___________ far below in the valley. a. sparkling
b. glimmering
c. flashing
d. beaming
7. After a month, I will ___________ the ropes and won't keep bothering you for help. a. show
b. learn
c. get
d. finish
8. The young rookie scored over 20 goals in his first year, taking the whole league by __________. a. force
b. example
c. storm
d. assault
9. Hubert ___________ remembered locking the door and couldn't understand how it was now standing wide open. a. distinctly
b. sharply
c. totally
d. utterly
10. If you are looking for Sheila, she is over in the corner of the library with her head ___________ in her books. a. covered
b. entombed
c. buried
d. drowned
Exercise 3: Fill in each blank with one most suitable preposition or particle. 1. The room fell silent when Johnson, unaware of the couple's history, brought ___________ the subject of divorce. 2. I suppose I always felt a certain amount of jealousy towards Elvin who was always such a well thought ___________ young man. 3. If they ask you about me, don't let ___________ that you know where I am, OK? 4. I hope you won't feel too put ___________ if I turn up at the last minute. The hotel was fully booked! 5. A lesser know symptom of this condition is that you will suddenly have panic attacks and break ___________ cold sweats with little or no warning. Exercise 4: Put the words in capitals into the correct forms. Read the text below. Use the word given in capitals at the end of some of the lines to form a word that fits in the gap in the same line. Bristleworms - a hobbyist's guide Historically, Bristleworms have had a bad reputation among 1. WATER aquarium aficionados. These marine worms usually enter the hobbyist's aquarium by hitching a ride on a piece of coral. Once 2. ESTABLISHMENT , they become part of the tank's ecosystem. Bristleworms range greatly in size. The smallest ones are about an inch long, and the large ones can grow to over 20 inches, although, being 3. SEGMENTAL , their bodies are often retracted and so not usually seen at their greatest extent. Literature has frequently contented that bristleworms are harmful, 4. ASSERTIVE that they eat clams, anemones and even coral fish. However, most 5. ENTHUSIASM now conclude that small bristleworms pose no threat, and are merely 6. SCAVENGE , clearing the tank from detritus and carcasses of animals that are already dead. However, larger worms, particularly those of the species known as fireworms, are 7.VORACITY eaters and can do 8. REPAIR damage. These worms are better removed, although this is a challenge in itself, as the worms are 9. NOCTURNE , sensitive to light and will go into hiding at the slightest 10. DISTURB .
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III.
READING
Exercise 1: Choose the best option to complete each blank in the passage.
The Vacuum Cleaner Until about 250 years ago, households did not take dirt as seriously as they do now - it was a fact of life, and that was that. Cleaning often consisted of an annual ..(1)... called 'spring cleaning' when the furniture was moved aside, and all the linen products in the house were cleaned. Carpets and rugs were taken outside, hung on ropes and had the dust ..(2).. out of them - an exhausting and messy process. The industrial revolution brought about a major change - as new products became available to make homes cleaner, a corresponding interest in 'domestic hygiene' appeared in households. This in turn led to the ..(3).. of further products, one of which was the vacuum cleaner. ..(4).. has it that when one of the first vacuum cleaners was demonstrated, a kindly scientist took the proud inventor..(5).. , and offered a bit of advice that was to become crucial to the future evolution of the product - 'make it suck, not blow'. The first vacuum cleaners appeared in the 1860s in the United States. They were operated by hand pumps and were almost as ..(6).. as spring cleaning. It was only when electric motors had become sufficiently ..(7)... to become portable that vacuum cleaners became common household items. Most of today's major ..(8).. - including Electrolux and Hoover - were born in the 1920s. The household ..(9).. that vacuum cleaners suck up is mostly dead skin cells - humans ..(10).. millions of cells every day. A much smaller proportion comes from dust and soil carried into the house from outside . 1. a. ritual
b. result
c. resolution
d. scrub
2. a. cleaned
b. taken
c. beaten
d. sucked
3. a. fabrication
b. appearing
c. recreation
d. development
4. a. Story
b. Epic
c. Legend
d. Tale
5. a. away
b. aside
c. aback
d. along
6. a. laborious
b. hard
c. nefarious
d. straining
7. a. scientific
b. forward
c. technological
d. advanced
8. a. brands
b. marks
c. make
d. trademarks
9. a. grit
b. rubbish
c. refuse
d. dirt
10. a. lose
b. outgrow
c. omit
d. shed
Exercise 2: Complete the passage with ONE WORD for each blank.
An Unlikely Muse
A new wave of music and arts projects has emerged, focusing on someone who may seem for some a dubious (1)___________
of inspiration. Imelda Marcos, former (2)___________
lady of the
Philippines, is currently becoming the subject of musicals, song cycles and shows on a worldwide arena. When the Marcos regime collapsed in 1986, and Imelda and her husband Ferdinand were exiled in Hawaii, they carried with (3)___________ allegations of embezzlement, corruption and human rights abuses. Imelda had spent the last twenty years living off a seemingly endless supply of funds, living an exotic and glamorous lifestyle and rubbing (4)___________ with powerful figures worldwide. In 1972, when the superstar couple’s popularity was fading and they were at risk of (5)___________ their power, Ferdinand Marcos instated martial, leading to an era of chaos and plunder, and (6)___________ is described by some as the second most corrupt regime of the twentieth century. Ferdinand and Imelda fled in 1986 to escape the People’s Power Revolution, Imelda leaving (7)___________ some 2000 pairs of shoes. After her husband died in Hawaii due to ill (8)___________ , Imelda stood trial in the United States on (9)___________ of her husband. Following that, she returned to the Philippines to face seventy more counts of corruption and tax (10)___________ . She has now returned to congress in the Philippines, her make-up and gowns as flawless as ever. Exercise 3: Read the text and choose the best options to answer the questions. This passage is from Charlotte Brontë, The Professor, originally published in 1857. No man likes to acknowledge that he has made a mistake in the choice of his profession, and every man, worthy of the name, will row long against wind and tide before he allows himself to cry out, “I am baffled!” and submits to be floated passively back to land. From the first week of my residence in X— felt my occupation irksome. The thing itself—the work of copying and translating business-letters— was a dry and tedious task enough, but had that been all, I should long have borne with the nuisance; I am not of an impatient nature, and influenced by the double desire of getting my living and justifying to myself and others the resolution I had taken to become a tradesman, I should have endured in silence the rust and cramp of my best faculties; I should not have whispered, even inwardly, that I longed for liberty; I should have pent in every sigh by which my heart might have ventured to intimate its distress under the closeness, smoke, monotony, and joyless tumult of Bigben Close, and its panting desire for freer and fresher scenes; I should have set up the image of Duty, the fetish of Perseverance, in my small bedroom at Mrs. King’s lodgings, and they two should have been my household gods, from which my darling, my cherished-in-secret, magination, the tender and the mighty, should never, either by softness or strength, have severed me. But this was not all; the antipathy which had sprung up between myself and my employer striking deeper root and spreading denser shade daily, excluded me from every glimpse of the sunshine of life; and I began to feel like a plant growing in humid darkness out of the slimy walls of a well.
Antipathy is the only word which can express the feeling Edward Crimsworth had for me—a feeling, in a great measure, involuntary, and which was liable to be excited by every, the most trifling movement, look, or word of mine. My southern accent annoyed him; the degree of education evinced in my language irritated him; my punctuality, industry, and accuracy, fixed his dislike, and gave it the high flavour and poignant relish of envy; he feared that I too should one day make a successful tradesman. Had I been in anything inferior to him, he would not have hated me so thoroughly, but I knew all that he knew, and, what was worse, he suspected that I kept the padlock of silence on mental wealth in which he was no sharer. If he could have once placed me in a ridiculous or mortifying position, he would have forgiven me much, but I was guarded by three faculties—Caution, Tact, Observation; and prowling and prying as was Edward’s malignity, it could never baffle the lynx-eyes of these, my natural sentinels. Day by day did his malice watch my tact, hoping it would sleep, and prepared to steal snake-like on its slumber; but tact, if it be genuine, never sleeps. I had received my first quarter’s wages, and was returning to my lodgings, possessed heart and soul with the pleasant feeling that the master who had paid me grudged every penny of that hard‑earned pittance—(I had long ceased to regard Mr. Crimsworth as my brother—he was a hard, grinding master; he wished to be an inexorable tyrant: that was all). Thoughts, not varied but strong, occupied my mind; two voices spoke within me; again and again they uttered the same monotonous phrases. One said: “William, your life is intolerable.” The other: “What can you do to alter it?” I walked fast, for it was a cold, frosty night in January; as I approached my lodgings, I turned from a general view of my affairs to the particular speculation as to whether my fire would be out; looking towards the window of my sitting-room, I saw no cheering red gleam. 1. Which choice best summarizes the passage? A. A character describes his dislike for his new job and considers the reasons why. B. Two characters employed in the same office become increasingly competitive. C. A young man regrets privately a choice that he defends publicly. D. A new employee experiences optimism, then frustration, and finally despair. 2. The main purpose of the opening sentence of the passage is to __________ A. establish the narrator’s perspective on a controversy. B. provide context useful in understanding the narrator’s emotional state. C. offer a symbolic representation of Edward Crimsworth’s plight. D. contrast the narrator’s good intentions with his malicious conduct. 3. During the course of the first paragraph, the narrator’s focus shifts from _________ A. recollection of past confidence to acknowledgment of present self-doubt. B. reflection on his expectations of life as a tradesman to his desire for another job. C. generalization about job dissatisfaction to the specifics of his own situation. D. evaluation of factors making him unhappy to identification of alternatives.
4. The references to “shade” and “darkness” at the end of the first paragraph mainly have which effect? A. They evoke the narrator’s sense of dismay. B. They reflect the narrator’s sinister thoughts. C. They capture the narrator’s fear of confinement. D. They reveal the narrator’s longing for rest. 5. The passage indicates that Edward Crimsworth’s behavior was mainly caused by his __________ A. impatience with the narrator’s high spirits. B. scorn of the narrator’s humble background. C. indignation at the narrator’s rash actions. D. jealousy of the narrator’s apparent superiority. 6. The passage indicates that when the narrator began working for Edward Crimsworth, he viewed Crimsworth as a __________ A. harmless rival.
B. sympathetic ally.
C. perceptive judge.
D. demanding mentor.
7. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A. Paragraph 1 (“the antipathy... life”) B. Paragraph 2 (“My southern... irritated him”) C. Paragraph 2 (“Day... slumber”) D. Paragraph 3 (“I had... brother”) 8. At the end of the second paragraph, the comparisons of abstract qualities to a lynx and a snake mainly have the effect of __________ A. contrasting two hypothetical courses of action. B. conveying the ferocity of a resolution. C. suggesting the likelihood of an altercation. D. illustrating the nature of an adversarial relationship. 9. The passage indicates that, after a long day of work, the narrator sometimes found his living quarters to be __________ A. treacherous.
B. dreary.
C. predictable.
D. intolerable.
10. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A. Paragraph 1 (“I should... scenes”) B. Paragraph 1 (“I should... lodgings”) C. Paragraph 3 (“Thoughts... phrases”) D. Paragraph 3 (“I walked... gleam”) Exercise 4: Read the text and answer the questions that follow. Question 1- 6 The reading passage has seven paragraphs, A-G. Choose the correct heading for paragraph A -G from the
list below. There is one example that has been done for you. Write the correct number i-ix, in boxes 1- 6 on your answer sheet. List of Headings: i
Disobeying FAA Regulations
ii
Aviation disaster prompts action
iii Two coincidental developments iv Setting Altitude Zones v
An oversimplified view
vi Controlling pilots' licence vii Defining airspace categories viii Setting rules to weather conditions ix Taking of Safety x
First step towards ATC
Example Paragraph B
Answer X
1. Paragraph A 2. Paragraph C 3. Paragraph D 4. Paragraph E 5. Paragraph F 6. Paragraph G
AIR TRAFFIC CONTROL IN THE USA A An accident that occurred in the skies over the Grand Canyon in 1956 resulted in the establishment of the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) to regulate and oversee the operation of aircraft in the skies over the United States, which were becoming quite congested. The resulting structure of air traffic control has greatly increased the safety of flight in the United States, and similar air traffic control procedures are also in place over much of the rest of the world. B Rudimentary air traffic control (АТС) existed well before the Grand Canyon disaster. As early as the 1920s, the earliest air traffic controllers manually guided aircraft in the vicinity of the airports, using lights and flags, while beacons and flashing lights were placed along cross-country routes to establish the earliest airways. However, this purely visual system was useless in bad weather, and, by the 1930s, radio communication was coming into use for АТС. The first region to have something approximating today's АТС was New York City, with other major metropolitan areas following soon after.
C In the 1940s, АТС centres could and did take advantage of the newly developed radar and improved radio communication brought about by the Second World War, but the system remained rudimentary. It was only after the creation of the FAA that full-scale regulation of America's airspace took place, and this was fortuitous, for the advent of the jet engine suddenly resulted in a large number of very fast planes, reducing pilots' margin of error and practically demanding some set of rules to keep everyone well separated and operating safely in the air. D Many people think that АТС consists of a row of controllers sitting in front of their radar screens at the nation's airports, telling arriving and departing traffic what to do. This is a very incomplete part of the picture. The FAA realised that the airspace over the United States would at any time have many different kinds of planes, flying for many different purposes, in a variety of weather conditions, and the same kind of structure was needed to accommodate all of them. E To meet this challenge, the following elements were put into effect. First, АТС extends over virtually the entire United States. In general, from 365m above the ground and higher, the entire country is blanketed by controlled airspace. In certain areas, mainly near airports, controlled airspace extends down to 215m above the ground, and, in the immediate vicinity of an airport, all the way down to the surface. Controlled airspace is that airspace in which FAA regulations apply. Elsewhere, in uncontrolled airspace, pilots are bound by fewer regulations. In this way, the recreational pilot who simply wishes to go flying for a while without all the restrictions imposed by the FAA has only to stay in uncontrolled airspace, below 365m, while the pilot who does want the protection afforded by АТС can easily enter the controlled airspace. F The FAA then recognised two types of operating environments. In good meteorological conditions, flying would be permitted under Visual Flight Rules (VFR), which suggests a strong reliance on visual cues to maintain an acceptable level of safety. Poor visibility necessitated a set of Instrumental Flight Rules (IFR), under which the pilot relied on altitude and navigational information provided by the plane's instrument panel to fly safely. On a clear day, a pilot in controlled airspace can choose a VFR or IFR flight plan, and the FAA regulations were devised in a way which accommodates both VFR and IFR operations in the same airspace. However, a pilot can only choose to fly IFR if they possess an instrument rating which is above and beyond the basic pilot's license that must also be held. G Controlled airspace is divided into several different types, designated by letters of the alphabet. Uncontrolled airspace is designated Class F, while controlled airspace below 5,490m above sea level and not in the vicinity of an airport is Class E. All airspace above 5,490m is designated Class A. The reason for the division of Class E and Class A airspace stems from the type of planes operating in them. Generally, Class E airspace is where one finds general aviation aircraft (few of which can climb above 5,490m anyway), and commercial turboprop aircraft. Above 5,490m is the realm of the heavy jets, since jet engines operate more efficiently at higher altitudes. The difference between Class E and A airspace is that in Class A, all operations are IFR, and pilots must be instrument-rated, that is, skilled and licensed in
aircraft instrumentation. This is because АТС control of the entire space is essential. Three other types of airspace, Classes D, С and B, govern the vicinity of airports. These correspond roughly to small municipal, medium-sized metropolitan and major metropolitan airports respectively, and encompass an increasingly rigorous set of regulations. For example, all a VFR pilot has to do to enter Class С airspace is establish two-way radio contact with АТС. No explicit permission from АТС to enter is needed, although the pilot must continue to obey all regulations governing VFR flight. To enter Class В airspace, such as on approach to a major metropolitan airport, an explicit АТС clearance is required. The private pilot who cruises without permission into this airspace risks losing their license. Question 7-10 Do the following statements agrees with the given information of the reading passage? In boxes 7-10 on your answer sheet, write: TRUE if the statement agrees with the information FALSE if the statement contradicts the information NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this 7. The FAA was created as a result of the introduction of the jet engine. 8. Air traffic control started after the Grand Canyon crash in 19 56. 9. Beacons and flashing lights are still used by the ATC today. 10. Some improvements were made in radio communication during World War II. Exercise 5: You are going to read an extract from an article about modern art and whether it can be called 'art'. For questions 1-10, choose from the people (A, B, C or D). The people may be chosen more than once. Is it Art? Corinne Art is the result of an artist using her or his skill or creative imagination for a creative purpose, to give pleasure to the viewer through its aesthetic qualities, or to get a reaction from the audience to a wider more significant issue outside of the work of art itself. That work of art might be a painting, a sculpture, an installation of some kind or an example from the performing arts like dance or mime. I think we sometimes get bogged down by the notion of 'skill'. For many in the anti modern art camp, there needs to be evidence of the artist's craft on show before the work is taken seriously and can merit the term 'art', be it intricate drawing skills, expert use of form or an artist's eye for colour. I'm not suggesting that an artist need not have these credentials but hand in hand with craft is, as I said earlier, creative imagination, the ability to see the value or beauty of something unremarkable which would often go unnoticed by the untrained eye. Much of modern art I think possesses this second quality which is why I often leave an exhibition of modern art feeling that I've had the chance to reflect on something that I wouldn't normally
have given the time of day to. The art has engaged me, has had an impact, made me think about something in a way that I wouldn't have thought about before. Michael I would certainly call myself an art enthusiast and have been for many years and in my opinion the modern art world is full of second-rate junk which most of us, if we were being totally honest, would agree a 4-year-old child could do. The idea that a slept-in bed such as that 'produced' by Tracy Emin or many of the pieces by Damien Hirst and his ilk are works of art is hard to justify as is the huge price tag that accompanies their work. I find it particularly galling when extremely talented people out there who have spent years honing their skills and learning the craft of drawing or painting are completely ignored. What's more, one of the dangers of this kind of 'art' is that it serves to alienate the mass of the population from the visual arts. The man in the street viewing one of these pieces is left thinking the world of modern art has no value; worse still, that he lacks the intellectual ability to understand the meaning of the piece when in fact there is little to interpret. Thankfully, one or two great artists make it through, but I'm afraid many are lost amongst the deluge of dross the art-world deems 'art'. For me, the first measure of the worth of an artist must be the degree of skill exhibited in the work or at the very least a pedigree of fine art preceeding any more abstract pieces produced by the artist such as was the case with Picasso. Robert The idea that modern art is some kind of mass deception and that all modern artists are talentless fraudsters just doesn't hold water. And I'm not talking here about the painters who for centuries have made a living out of copying works of art and selling them on as originals. I'm talking about abstract art and the idea that the great art collectors such as the Saatchis or Rockefellas and the great museums of art around the world, would somehow allow themselves to be duped into paying a fortune for an abstract painting or sculpture. Are these artists really tricking these people into paying huge sums of money for something worthless? Of course not. Though some of these works may not appear to the layman as having any artistic merit, neither did the great impressionists or the more abstract works of Picasso or Rothko when they were first exhibited. In the same way that great poetry can speak to us in a way that prose never can, abstract art can engage with the audience in more subtle and effective ways than is the case with art of a more realistic nature. So, they may get their fingers burnt now and again but I don't think the Saatchis will be cursing the day they spent huge sums on works of abstract art. Quite the opposite in fact and in the process of making a canny investment they have helped further raise the profile of some of our great modern artists. Janet Here we go again: the media are once more up in arms about the latest 'is it art' shock-horror editorials following the latest Turner Prize shortlisting. When will they learn? For decades art in many forms has moved away from realism and towards abstraction. Ever since the invention and popularisation of photography, art has had to reinvent itself. Patrons who wanted a perfect representation of themselves no
longer needed to turn to the artist. Artists started to struggle with the challenge of catching the essence of the thing depicted rather than simply its external appearance. Abstract artists try to convey a pure idea, not the exact replica of the subject concerned. It's true that some works of art are so obscure that you may need to read up on the theory behind the creation, which is usually helpfully supplied in art galleries. But this isn't always necessary. Take Guernica by Picasso. To get a full understanding of this painting it could be argued the audience needs to appreciate the historical context, the bombing of the Basque city during the Spanish Civil War. It would also probably help to have a good understanding of the techniques of abstraction that Picasso had used to create the effect. However, I think most people viewing this masterpiece would be struck by the horror it depicts even without this background knowledge. And I would argue it is the effect of this abstraction that adds to the impact on us compared to a realistic portrayal of such a scene. Which person gives each of these opinions about modern art? A. Corinne
B. Michael
C. Robert
D. Janet
1) Some practices have been going on for hundreds of years. 2) Some people may not have the knowledge to understand a work of art fully. 3) Certain aesthetic qualities can be invisible until brought to our attention by the artist. 4) Picasso is an example of an artist who proved his craftsmanship. 5) Appreciation of the work itself is not always the artist's aim. 6) The purpose of Art has undergone change. 7) People don't always appreciate the works of great artists initially. 8) Abstract art is generally overpriced. 9) Abstract art isn't always a good investment. 10) We can be touched by a work of art without knowing the context. IV.
WRITING
Exercise 2: The graph below shows the population figures for different types of turtles in India from 1980 to 2012. Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make comparisons where relevant.
09.
CHUYÊN ĐHSP HÀ NỘI
PART A. LISTENING (50 points) Section 1. (10 points) Questions 1 - 5, listen to an interview with someone who reviews hotels and choose the correct answer A, B, C, or D which fits best according to what your hear. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. 1. What does Paddy say about some readers of her column? A. They suspect that she enjoys criticizing hotels. B. Her attitude to hotels has changed because of their response. C. Her comments match their experiences of hotels. D. They prefer reading about hotels they would not want to visit. 2. What does Paddy say about some hotel-keepers? A. They sometimes have to force themselves to have a sense of humor. B. They would be more suited to a different profession. C. They expect to receive negative comments about their hotels. D. They are surprised that they become friends of hers. 3. Paddy says that some hotel-keepers she has contacted about the book have A. realized that she does not really have an assistant called Emily. B. corrected inaccuracies that were in her review of their hotels. C. responded favorably despite criticism she had made. D. made her wonder whether her reviews of their hotels were unfair.
4. Paddy says that one hotel-keeper she spoke to told her that A. other people are unlikely to be treated in the same way in hotels as she is. B. he was unwilling to discuss some of the comments in her review. C. her reviews did not have much influence as she believed. D. he no longer wanted his hotel to appear in the book. 5. The same owner also told her that A. he had passed information about her to other hotels. B. he resented her description of him in her review. C. he did not understand why she wanted to put his hotel in her book. D. there was nothing distinctive about her physical appearance. Section 2 (10 points) Questions 6 - 10, listen to a discussion on the history of an English word and decide whether these statements are True (T) or False (F). 6. The topic that the students choose is a little bizarre. 7. The students decided to go for the word ‘nice’ mainly because it’s so well-known. 8. Listening to interesting lectures inspired the students to research the history of the word. 9. The students agree they need to add computer software to their presentation. 10. With regard to the reading background, Ruby is worried about its overlap with other modules. Section 3 (10 points) Questions 11 - 15. Listen and answer the questions. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER. 1. How long have African runners dominated some running events? __________________________________________ 2. Besides being home to Kip’s family, what does the farm act as? _________________________________________ 3. According to Kip, what do abandoned kids need? _________________________________________ 4. When are the children at the orphanage free to do as they like? _________________________________________ 5. What is the farm going to build? _________________________________________ Section 4 (20 points) Questions 16 - 25. Listen to the news and fill in the following blank with a suitable phrase. WRITE NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS in each blank. Today the U.S. Supreme Court delivered a (16)________ to American business and an equally sweeping defeat to American workers. The (17)_______ upheld and extended the growing practice
adopted by American businesses, namely requiring workers to agree as a condition of employment not to go to court over wage and hour disputes but to instead submit their claims to (18)______ individually. Lawyer Ron Chapman, who represents management in (19)_________, said he expects small and large businesses alike to immediately move to impose these binding arbitration contracts in order to eliminate the fear of costly class-action (20)_______ from juries. The lead (21)__________ in the case was an IT worker at Epic, the giant health care software development company. That law guarantees the rights of workers to engage in activities for the purpose of (22)________ or any other concerted activities. Justice Ruth Bader Ginsburg, in a (23)_________ from the bench, called out the majority for what she said was an egregiously wrong decision. Labor law experts said today's decision likely will present increasing problems for the #MeToo movement and for other civil rights class actions claiming discrimination based on (24)________. There's no transparency in most binding arbitration agreements, and they often include (25)_________. Yale law professor Judith Resnik observes that today's decision applies to all manner of class actions. PART B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (30 points) Exercise 1. Choose the correct answer (A, B, C, or D) to complete each of the following sentences. (10 points) 26. Most frequently, the earthquake lasts 30 to 60 seconds, so usually there is no time to avert the mortal ________ once the shaking starts. A. upkeep
B. upturn
C. upshot
D. upswing
27. They live under a constant pressure of being ________ and subsequently replaced by someone who is younger, faster and more accomplished. A. outcast
B. outshone
C. outstayed
D. outgrown
28. There was a lot of ________ as throngs of people tried to see the famous actor walking through the mall. A. stamina
B. discipline
C. counsel
D. commotion
29. Luckily my wallet was handed in to the police with all its contents ______________. A. preserved
B. unscathed
C. contained
D. intact
30. Serena is still _____________ ignorant of the fact that she is about to be made redundant. A. blissfully B. decorously
C. jubilantly
D. ecstatically
31. No decision has been taken about the building of the new airport. The authorities are still ______________. A. beating about the bush
B. comparing apples and oranges
C. sitting on the fence
D. holding all the aces
32. Oil spills will _______________ even the healthiest of marine ecosystem. A. play havoc on
B. break ground with
C. pay the consequences for
D. take their toll on
33. Don’t look so worried! You should take the boss’s remarks with a ____________of salt. A. teaspoon
B. pinch
C. grain
D. dose
34. Rachel has an amazing _______________ of jokes that she uses to good effect at parties. A. body
B. repertoire
C. variation
D. store
35. The question of peace settlement is likely to figure ________________ in the talks. A. prominently
B. prolifically
C. proportionately
D. properly
Exercise 3. Fill in the blank with a suitable preposition or particle in the following passage (5 points) Escaped prisoner Dean Parsons finally gave himself up this morning after a dramatic twelve-hour siege during which he threatened to blow himself and his female hostage up with a hand grenade. Parsons, who was serving an eight-year sentence for holding up a Post Office and making (41)______ with five thousand pounds, had broken out of Peterhead prison eleven days previously. The hostage is believed to be Kelly McAlister, Parson’s former girlfriend, and the occupant of the flat where the siege took place. Three years ago, when Parsons first came before the court for armed robbery, McAlister was brought (42)________ on charges of being an accomplice to the crime. However, when the jury brought their verdict (43)___________, McAlister was let (44)__________ for lack of evidence. After he was sentenced, Parsons was led from the dock shouting “You should have sent her (45)_________ too. It was her idea in the first place!” It is not yet known where or how Parsons spent his first ten days on the run, but last night neighbors McAlister's phoned the police to report sounds of someone breaking in next door. The police arrived to find … Exercise 4. Read the text below. Use the word given in capitals in brackets to form a word that fits in the gap. (10 points) Pop
art
was
a(n)
(46.
CONVENTION)_____________
art
style
in
which
(47.
COMMON)_____________ objects such as comic strips, soup cans and road signs were used as subject matter, and were often incorporated into the work. The pop art movement was largely a British and American cultural phenomenon of the late 1950s and ‘60s. Art critic Lawrence Alloway, referring to the prosaic (48. ICON)___________ of its painting and sculpture, named the movement pop art. It represented an attempt to return to a more objective and (49. UNIVERSE)___________ accepted form of art after the dominance in both the United States and Europe of the highly personal abstract (50. EXPRESS)_____________. The art form was iconoclastic, rejecting the (51. SUPREME)___________ of the ‘high art’ of the past and the (52. PRETEND)____________ of other contemporary avant-garde art. Pop art became a cultural institution because of its close reflection of a particular social situation and because its easily (53. COMPREHEND)_____________images were immediately exploited by the mass media. Although the critics of pop art describe it as sensational and non-aesthetic, its proponents saw it as
an art that was democratic and not (54. DISCRIMINATE)____________, bringing together both connoisseurs and untrained inexperienced viewers. Even though public reaction to pop art was (55. FAVOR)____________, it found critical acceptance as a form of art suited to the highly technological, mass media-oriented society of western countries. PART C. READING (60 points) Exercise 1. Choose the option A, B, C, or D that best fits each blank in the following passage. (10 points) The problems of racial minorities make the headlines occasionally when one group or another (56)____________
to (57)_____________ their protests against the oppressive treatment of their
authorities. The native Indians have been living within the (58)____________ of their reserves, the Australian Aborigines have a hard time of integrating with the descendants of the European colonizers and the African Movement keeps (59)____________ its war against the concealed racial discrimination in America. There are also cultures and nations whose heritage and history has only remained alive (60)____________
chronicles and museums. Vast numbers of indigenous populations have been
slaughtered by merciless invaders or persecuted by acquisitive colonizers, then, deprived of their lands, rights and properties. Many of them have (61)__________ with their oppressors to be finally (62)___________ 'non-existent'. One example of such a community is represented by the Ainu people - the original inhabitants of the Japanese Archipelago whose independent existence was ruined by an extremely rapid assimilation with the Japanese culture. The Ainu are believed to have possessed very distinct characteristics from those that (63)__________ the Japanese people. Theirs was a light complexion and thick wavy hair as well as a totally isolated language. They adored many spirits (64)_________ by natural phenomena like animals, plants or climatic forces. Once a year they would sacrifice a bear cub at a religious festival which was a sign of reverent worship for the gods. Now, they are claimed to be no longer existent in their pure form. By similar means, dozens of other cultures have vanished leaving behind only a trait of their (65)_________imprinted in the character of the societies that have absorbed them. 56.
A. pursues
B. resolves
C. undergoes
D. embarks
57.
A. place
B. stage
C. assure
D. expose
58.
A. boundaries
B. realms
C. margins
D. zones
59.
A. deploying
B. engaging
C. waging
D. tackling
60.
A. in lieu of
B. in the way of
C. by dint of
D. for the sake of
61.
A. intermingled
B. exchanged
C. intertwined
D. incorporated
62.
A. decided
B. nicknamed
C. presupposed
D. classified
63.
A. divulge
B. typify
C. relate
D. sport
64.
A. embodied
B. displayed
C. ingrained
D. defaced
65.
A. legacy
B. heredity
C. remnant
D. heirloom
Exercise 2. Read the text below and think of the word that best fits each space. Use only one word in each space. (15 points) Over the last century the world has become increasingly smaller. Not geographically, of course, but in the (66)___________ that media, technology and the opening of borders has enabled the world’s citizens to view, share and gain access to a much wider range of cultures, societies and world views. In this (67)___________ pot that the world has become, today’s child is privy (68)___________ facets of the human experience that his immediate predecessors had no inkling even existed. It (69)_____________ to reason that in order to absorb, configure and finally form opinions about this information-laden planet, children must be supplied with certain tools. (70)______ in this list of ‘tools’ are: education, social skills, cultural awareness and the acquisition of languages, the most important of these being the latter. Until recently, a child who had the ability to speak more than one language would have been considered a very (71)_____________ entity. This one-language phenomenon could be attributed to a combination of factors. One of them is that the monolingual environment in which a child was raised played a strong role, (72)____________ did the limited, biased education of the past. With regard to immigrants, the sad fact was that non-native parents tended to withhold the teaching of the mother tongue so that the child would acquire the ‘more prestigious’ language of the adopted country. Nowadays, the situation has (73)___________ an almost complete reversal. In the majority of North American and European countries, most children are given the opportunity to learn a second or even a third language. Children acquire these foreign languages through various and diverse means. In many countries, learning a foreign language is a compulsory subject in the state school (74)_____________. Other children rely on language schools or private tuition to achieve their goal. In other instances, children are (75)___________ to bilingual parents, who, if they so desire, may teach the children two languages. Exercise 3. Read the text and choose the best answer A, B, C or D. (10 points) It is often helpful when thinking about biological processes to consider some apparently similar yet better understood non-biological process. In the case of visual perception an obvious choice would be color photography. Since in many respects eyes resemble cameras, and percepts photographs, is it not reasonable to assume that perception is a sort of photographic process whereby samples of the external world become spontaneously and accurately reproduced somewhere inside our heads? Unfortunately, the answer must be no. The best that can be said of the photographic analogy is that it points up what perception is not. Beyond this it is superficial and misleading. Four simple experiments should make the matter plain. In the first a person is asked to match a pair of black and white discs, which are rotating at such a speed as to make them appear uniformly grey. One disc is standing in shadow, the other in bright
illumination. By adjusting the ratio of black to white in one of the discs the subject tries to make it look the same as the other. The results show him to be remarkably accurate, for it seems he has made the proportion of black to white in the brightly illuminated disc almost identical with that in the disc which stood in shadow. But there is nothing photographic about his perception, for when the matched discs, still spinning, are photographed, the resulting print shows them to be quite dissimilar in appearance. The disc in shadow is obviously very much darker than the other one. What has happened? Both the camera and the person were accurate, but their criteria differed. One might say that the camera recorded things as they look, and the person things as they are. But the situation is manifestly more complex than this, for the person also recorded things as they look. He did better than the camera because he made them look as they really are. He was not misled by the differences in illumination. He showed perceptual constancy. By reason of an extremely rapid, wholly unconscious piece of computation he received a more accurate record of the external world than could the camera. In the second experiment a person is asked to match with a color card the colors of two pictures in dim illumination. One is of a leaf, the other of a donkey. Both are colored an equal shade of green. In making his match he chooses a much stronger green for the leaf than for the donkey. The leaf evidently looks greener than the donkey. The percipient makes a perceptual world compatible with his own experience. It hardly needs saying that cameras lack this versatility. In the third experiment hungry, thirsty and satiated people are asked to equalize the brightness of pictures depicting food, water and other objects unrelated to hunger or thirst. When the intensities at which they set the pictures are measured it is found that hungry people see pictures relating to food as brighter than the rest (i.e. to equalize the pictures they make the food ones less intense), and thirsty people do likewise with “drink” pictures. For the satiated group no differences are obtained between the different objects. In other words, perception serves to satisfy needs, not to enrich subjective experience. Unlike a photograph the percept is determined by more than just the stimulus. The fourth experiment is of a rather different kind. With ears plugged, their eyes beneath translucent goggles and their bodies either encased in cotton wool, or floating naked in water at body temperature, people are deprived for considerable periods of external stimulation. Contrary to what one might expect, however, such circ*mstances result not in a lack of perceptual experience but rather a surprising change in what is perceived. The subjects in such an experiment begin to see, feel and hear things which bear no more relationship to the immediate external world than does a dream in someone who is asleep. These people are not asleep yet their hallucinations, or so-called “autistic” perceptions, may be as vivid, if not more so, than any normal percept. 76. In the first paragraph, the author suggests that A. color photography is a biological process. B. vision is rather like color photography.
C. vision is a sort of photographic process. D. vision and color photography are very different. 77. What does the word “it”, underlined in the first paragraph, refer to? A. perception
B. the photographic process
C. the comparison with photography
D. the answer
78. In the first experiment, it is proved that a person A. makes mistakes of perception and is less accurate than a camera. B. can see more clearly than a camera. C. is more sensitive to changes in light than a camera. D. sees colors as they are in spite of changes in the light. 79. What does the word “that”, underlined in the second paragraph, refer to? A. the proportion of black to white
B. the brightly illuminated disc
C. the other disc
D. the grey color
80. The second experiment shows that A. people see colors according to their ideas of how things should look. B. colors look different in a dim light. C. cameras work less efficiently in a dim light. D. colors are less intense in larger objects. 81. What does the word “satiated”, underlined in the fourth paragraph, means? A. tired
B. bored
C. not hungry or thirsty
D. nervous
82. What does “to equalize the brightness", underlined in the fourth paragraph, mean? A. to arrange the pictures so that the equally bright ones are together B. to change the lighting so that the pictures look equally bright C. to describe the brightness D. to move the pictures nearer or further away 83. The third experiment proves that A. we see things differently according to our interest in them. B. pictures of food and drink are especially interesting to everybody. C. cameras are not good at equalizing brightness. D. satiated people see less clearly than hungry or thirsty people. 84. The expression “contrary to what one might expect” occurs the fifth paragraph. What might one expect? A. that the subjects would go to sleep. B. that they would feel uncomfortable and disturbed. C. that they would see, hear and feel nothing.
D. that they would see, hear and feel strange things. 85. The fourth experiment proves A. that people deprived of sense stimulation go mad. B. that people deprived of sense stimulation dream. C. that people deprived of sense stimulation experience unreal things. D. that people deprived of sense stimulation lack perceptual experience. Exercise 4. Read the text and do the tasks below. (10 points) WHAT IS PERSONALITY? A. We are all familiar with the idea that different people have different personalities, but what does this actually mean? It implies that different people behave in different ways, but it must be more than that. After all, different people find themselves in different circ*mstances, and much of their behavior follows from this fact. However, our common experience reveals that different people respond in quite remarkably different ways even when faced with roughly the same circ*mstances. Alan might be happy to live alone in a quiet and orderly cottage, go out once a week, and stay in the same job for thirty years, whilst Beth likes nothing better than exotic travel and being surrounded by vivacious friends and loud music. B. In cases like these, we feel that it cannot be just the situation which is producing the differences in behavior. Something about the way the person is ‘wired up’ seems to be at work, determining how they react to situations, and, more than that, the kind of situations they get themselves into in the first place. This is why personality seems to become stronger as we get older; when we are young, our situation reflects external factors such as the social and family environment we were born into. As we grow older, we are more and more affected by the consequences of our own choices (doing jobs that we were drawn to, surrounded by people like us whom we have sought out). Thus, personality differences that might have been very slight at birth become dramatic in later adulthood. C. Personality, then, seems to be the set of enduring and stable dispositions that characterize a person. These dispositions come partly from the expression of inherent features of the nervous system, and partly from learning. Researchers sometimes distinguish between temperament, which refers exclusively to characteristics that are inborn or directly caused by biological factors, and personality, which also includes social and cultural learning. Nervousness, for example, might be a factor of temperament, but religious piety is an aspect of personality. D. The discovery that temperamental differences are real is one of the major findings of contemporary psychology. It could easily have been the case that there were no intrinsic differences between people in temperament, so that given the same learning history, the same dilemmas, they would all respond in much the same way. Yet we now know that this is not the case. E. Personality measures turn out to be good predictors of your health, how happy you typically are - even your taste in paintings. Personality is a much better predictor of these things than social class or age. The
origin of these differences is in part innate. That is to say, when people are adopted at birth and brought up by new families, their personalities are more similar to those of their blood relatives than to the ones they grew up with. F. Personality differences tend to manifest themselves through the quick, gut-feeling, intuitive and emotional systems of the human mind. The slower, rational, deliberate systems show less variation in output from person to person. Deliberate rational strategies can be used to over-ride intuitive patterns of response, and this is how people wishing to change their personalities or feelings have to go about it. As human beings, we have the unique ability to look in at our personality from the outside and decide what we want to do with it. G. So what are the major ways personalities can differ? The dominant approach is to think of the space of possible personalities as being defined by a number of dimensions. Each person can be given a location in the space by their scores on all the different dimensions. Virtually all theories agree on two of the main dimensions, neuroticism (or negative emotionality) and extroversion (or positive emotionality). However, they differ on how many additional ones they recognize. Among the most influential proposals are openness, conscientiousness and agreeableness. In the next section I shall examine these five dimensions. Questions 86- 92: There are seven paragraphs marked A-G in the passage. Choose the correct heading for each paragraph from the list below. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered box provided.
List of Headings i
A degree of control
ii
Where research has been carried out into the effects of family on personality
iii
Categorizing personality features according to their origin
iv
A variety of reactions in similar situations
v
A link between personality and aspects of our lives that aren’t chosen
vi
A possible theory that cannot be true
vii
Measuring personality
viii Potentially harmful effects of emotions ix
How our lives can reinforce our personalities
x
Differences between men’s and women’s personalities
86. Paragraph A 87. Paragraph B
88. Paragraph C 89. Paragraph D 90. Paragraph E 91. Paragraph F 92. Paragraph G Questions 93-95: Do the following statements reflect the claims of the writer? Write your answers in the corresponding numbered box provided. Write YES
if the statement reflects the claims of the writer
NO
if the statement reflects the claims of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this 93. Alan and Berth illustrate contrasting behavior in similar situations. 94. As we grow older, we become more able to analyze our personalities. 95. Nervousness is an example of a learned characteristic. Exercise 5. The passage below consists of six paragraphs marked A, B, C, D, E and F. For questions 96- 105, read the passage and do the task that follows. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. Critics give their personal opinions of films they have seen recently A. Blues Brothers 2000 Eighteen years after the original Blues Brothers movie, director John Landis and his co-writer Dan Ackroyd have decided to revive the franchise. Unfortunately, the thrill has gone, although the music is as brash and energetic as ever and Elwood’s stunt driving continues to astound. Sequences such as the huge, ghostly skeletons of cowboys galloping across the night during the Blues Brothers’ spirited rendition of ‘Riders in the Sky (A Cowboy Legend)’ look stunning in themselves, but have no bearing on the story. Blues fans will doubtless relish the wealth of musical talent on display (it’s a far richer array than the first film’s). Over time Blues Brothers 2000 will probably attain the same massive cult status as its predecessor, but only the most indulgent of audiences is likely to be happy with this sequel. B. Journey to the Beginning of the World This is not Manoel de Oliveira’s final film – the tireless 90-year-old director has since made a follow-up. However, it was the last appearance of Marcello Mastroianni, playing a film director called Manoel, to all appearances a representation of Oliveira himself. Oliveira is arguably the most marginal of Europe’s major directors, especially for British audiences - his only previous release here (and then only just) was 1993’s Abraham Valley. However, on the festival circuit Oliveira is revered, as much for his longevity as for his varied and highly eccentric output. The film’s opening section offers us something dauntingly simple, shot with
audacious economy – a series of close-ups of people talking in the back of a car. It promises a sort of film symposium in the guise of a road movie: after all, on most road trips, there’s little to do but talk and watch the scenery. At times, Oliveira simply has his camera gaze out of the car’s rear window as the road recedes. C. City of Angels Although it is not without flaws, City of Angels stands out from the dreary succession of recent Hollywood remakes of European movies. This is partly due to Dana Stevens’ screenplay and Brad Silberling’s direction, which grab hold of the theme of director Wim Wenders’ 1987 film Wings of Desire and head off very much in their own direction with it. Most of all, however, City of Angels pleases because it is quite simply so surprising for a mainstream Hollywood movie. Designer Shay Cunliffe hits the tone precisely, with the angels in baggy suits and long black duster coats, which are especially effective when they gather in some of their preferred meeting places - the beach at dawn and dusk, in the city library during the day - invisible to all but each other (and us). There is nothing in Silberling’s previous career - which comprises directing episodes of LA Law and NYPD Blue for television, followed by the kids’ film Casper - to prepare one for the confidence with which he handles a film in which tone is all. City of Angels is the sort of one-off we should surely welcome. D. Dad Savage Strikingly shot in the bleak flatlands of Norfolk, Dad Savage is a British thriller that manages to conjure up a whole new cinematic landscape, and populates it without falling back on the stereotypes of bent policeman and East End gangsters. Making her feature debut, television director Betsan Morris Evans shows that she can put the wide Super 35 frame to impressive use as well. In the claustrophobic scenes in the cellar (to which the film keeps returning in between flashbacks), she charts the characters’ changing allegiances through the way she arranges them across the screen. Above ground, meanwhile, the wide screen captures the yawning emptiness of the East Anglian marshes, and hints at the corresponding emptiness of the backwater life Vic, Bob and H are trying to escape from by turning to crime. If anything, the structure is a bit too intricate: the transitions in and out of flashback are jolting, and it’s not always clear whose point of view we’re flashing back from. E. Mojo Adapted from Jez Butterworth’s acclaimed stage play, Mojo occupies the same strange netherworld as last year’s little-seen The SlabBoys, directed by John Byrne. Both were directed by their original writers; and both were brought to the big screen through television funding, which underlines their ultimate smallscreen destiny. Where Mojo has the edge on Slab Boys, however, is in the sheer quality of its performances, which consistently hold the audience’s attention even as the narrative shambles distractingly.
The fact that Mojo’s chances of making much impact among cinema-goers are remote shouldn’t dampen Butterworth’s obvious enthusiasm. On this evidence, he has enough talent to suggest triumphs ahead, although one wonders whether the screen or the theatre will prove more enticing for his trade. F. The Wedding Singer The Wedding Singer is the third collaboration between the comedian Adam Sandler and writer Tim Herlihy, and as you might expect from the men behind Billy Madison and Happy Gilmore, it’s not a particularly clever comedy. The 1985 setting, of no importance to the plot, is the pretext for some cheap retro humor. But somehow, for all its simple-mindedness, this turns out to be a very winning romantic comedy. A pleasant surprise is Sandler’s singing. Playing opposite him is Drew Barrymore, who has managed to become a celebrity without ever having a lead role in a decent movie. As Julia in this film, however, she does wonders with an unremarkable part. For which of the films does the reviewer state the following?
Answers
One of the actors gets the most out of an uninspiring role.
96.
It is a follow-up to an earlier film.
97.
It is not likely to be a commercial success.
98.
The public has already had a chance to see it in a different medium.
99.
There are some impressive scenes which are of no significance to the narrative.
100 .
It is more successful than other films of its kind.
101 .
One of the characters in the film is likened to the director.
102 .
There is no justification for setting the film in the past.
103 .
The lives of the characters are mirrored in the scenery. It has an unusual setting for a film of this kind.
10.
104 . 105 .
CHUYÊN HƯNG YÊN
A. LISTENING (50 points) Part 1. You will hear an interview with a woman called Tansy Burton, who runs a company which makes beauty products. For questions 16 to 20, choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best
according to what you hear. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered spaces provided below. 1. To what does Tansy attribute her success as a business person? A. It was a family tradition. B. It reflects her early training. C. It grew out of desire to please people. D. It’s something which came naturally to her. 2. What was Tansy’s main role in setting up the production company? A. drawing up a business plan B. attracting sufficient investment C. responding to customer preferences D. establishing administrative systems 3. According to Tansy, her fragrances are successful because they __________ A. are elegantly packaged. B. appeal to a wide range of people. C. suggest an expensive lifestyle. D. reflect changes in consumer taste. 4. Increasingly, Tansy see people’s choice of fragrance as a reflection of the wearer’s __________ A. social standing. B. taste in other products. C. emotional state. D. financial situation. 5. In the future, Tansy expects to see __________ A. a wider use of fragrances in society
.
B. fewer companies involved in producing fragrances. C. single product fulfilling a range of functions. D. increasing profitability for producers of fragrances. Part 2. Listen to an interview about the behavior of animals and birds in relation to the weather. Decide whether these following statements are True (T) or False (F). 6. Sue has little faith in the accuracy of sayings about the weather. 7. Peter says that nowadays people are less interested in sayings than in previous times. 8. Peter says that low-flying birds suffer badly in storms. 9. According to Peter, insects have difficulty in sensing changes in the atmosphere.
10. Sue concludes that the rain goose’s behavior is surprising. Part 3. Listen to a talk on a special type of tourism and answer the following questions in the form of notes (DO NOT USE MORE THAN 5 WORDS). SLUM TOURISM 11. Name one of the three cities taken as examples of popular slum tourism sites. __________________________________________________________ 12. What is one of the motivation for tourists to go on slum tours? __________________________________________________________ 13. What destination that Marcello Armstrong took tourist to in Rio? __________________________________________________________ 14. Name one thing that slum tourists often do while stopping during their trip. __________________________________________________________ 15. What do “poorism” help people from develop countries understand? __________________________________________________________ B. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 points) Part 1: Choose the best answer to each of the following questions. (10 points) 1. Derek had no experience of white-water canoeing, so it was extremely_________
of him to try
and shoot the rapids. A. hazardous
B. intrepid
C. perilous
D. foolhardy
2. Peregrine Thorpe_________the rewards of his hard work when he was given the chair of classics. A. got
B. obtained
C. reaped
D. collected
3. I can’t understand Juan’s Spanish, because he speaks a regional_________ A. dialect
B. jargon
C. accent
D. slang
4. When the lift finally started moving, we were all packed inside like_________ A. fish
B. anchovies
C. sardines
D. dates
5. The police accused the bank employee of_________, after financial irregularities were uncovered in his department’s accounts. A. fraud
B. hoodwink
C. swindle
D. cheating
6. The news of the attack left us completely _________. A. stirred
B. stunned
C. moved
D. upset
7. -“They say that your wife tends to pry into other people private’s matters.”
- “ I don’t care. It’s no skin off my _______” A. palm
B. skull
C. cheek
D. nose
8. Take the doctor’s advice into consideration. He’s in ________ earnest about the epidemic. A. mortally
B. fatally
C. gravely
D. deadly
9. Every room in the hotel was characterized by shabby furniture and ________ lighting. A. morose
B. negative
C. glum
D. sullen
10. It’s important to keep your _____ about you when you are walking through the African bush. A. wits
B. heads
C. brains
D. minds
Part 3: Complete the following sentences with the correct prepositions or particles. (5 points) 1. She doesn’t eat crisps or chocolate; she’s _________health food. A. into
B. in
C. up for
D. under
2. Housing in some cities is so expensive that some people cannot even afford to put________ the two months’ deposit that is required. A. away
B. down
C. out
D. about
3. Several members of the public stepped _________________ with information pertaining to the incident. A. back
B. forward
C. backward
D. onto
4. We haven’t met ______________a month of Sundays and I can hardly remember what he looks like. A. in
B. off
C. out
D. up
5. As the day wore _________, I began to feel more and more uncomfortable in their company. A. with
B. on
C. out
D. at
Part 4: Write the correct form of each bracketed word in the following sentences. (10 points) Many years ago, a young man was traveling one night through a forest (1.inhabit)_________by Duergars, an evil race of fairies, who liked nothing better than to lure (2. suspect) _________to their death. As he was making his way down the narrow path, he looked at the (3. tower)_________pine trees. Black (4. thunder)_________heavy with rain were racing across the sky, and he knew that he would soon have to find shelter. Presently he saw the glow of a fire on the hillside and left the path to clamber up the steep slope that led to the (5. enter)_________of the cave.
He stood at the entrance and looked in. It was a vast, empty cavern whose sides rose up to a (6. vault)_________ceiling. On the ground in the centre a space had been cleared and a warm fire was throwing (7. flicker) _________shadows across the floor. He went cautiously towards the fire and sat down. As his eyes slowly grew used to the dim light, the (8. menace)_________face of a Duergar begun to (9. emergence)_________The creature was sitting (10. motion)_________on the opposite side of the fire; it stared at him through its slanting green eyes but said nothing. C. READING (60pts) Part 1: Choose the words that best complete the sentences in the text. (10 points) The Return of El Nino Aside from the seasons, El Nino and its twin, La Nina, are the two largest single causes of variability in the world's climate from year to year. Both are dictated by (1) _______ in water temperature in the tropical Pacific basin between Australia and South America. (2) _______ after the Spanish words for "Christ child" and "the girl" because of their (3) _______to Christmas, they lead to dramatic shifts in the entire system of oceanic and atmospheric factors from air pressure to currents. A significant rise in sea temperature leads to an El Nino event whereas a fall in temperature leads to La Nina. The cause of the phenomenon is not fully understood but in an El Nino "event" the pool of warm surface water is forced eastwards by the loss of the westerly trade winds. The sea water evaporates, (4) _______ in drenching rains over South America, as well as western parts of the United States, such as California. The effects can (5) _______ for anything from a few weeks to 8 months, causing extreme weather as far (6) _______ as India and East Africa. The correlation with global warming is as (7) _______unclear. Archaeological evidence shows El Ninos and La Ninas have been (8) _______ for 15,000 years. But scientists are investigating whether climate change is leading to an increase in their intensity or duration. The weather pattern is already having early and intense effects and El Nino could bring extreme rainfall to parts of east Africa which were last year (9) _______ by a cycle of drought and floods. It's difficult to (10) _______ what will happen to the weather in the British Isles, but it will probably add to the likelihood of record-breaking temperatures in the UK. 1.
A. shifts
B. drops
C. alternatives
D. downfall
2.
A. Elected
B. Called
C. Nominated
D. Named
3.
A. proximity
B. neighborhood
C. attachment
D. bond
4.
A. producing
B. resulting
C. stemming
D. refreshing
5.
A. persist
B. keep
C. conserve
D. assert
6.
A. ahead
B. afield
C. along
D. alongside
7.
A. still
B. yet
C. present
D. now
8.
A. dawning
B. obtaining
C. occurring
D. securing
9.
A. hit
B. shoved
C. punctured
D. punched
10.
A. predict
B. imply
C. entail
D. point
Part 2: Read the following passage. Fill each blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answers in the numbered blanks provided below the passage. (15 points) It is often said that the British talk about the weather more than any (1) ________ people in the world; some extremists claim that they talk about nothing else. But in fact, even in countries with (2)________ less changeable climates than Britain’s, the weather is an endless, if not varied, source of conversational folder. This seems only natural when you (3)________ that the weather is one of the few things we all have in (4)________. It affects our senses, and even our moods, so directly and, at times, so intensely that it is only natural we should talk about it. After several days (5)________ even weeks of dark, gloomy weather, a bright day tends to bring about the best in everyone; people recognize the relief (6)________ others’ expressions which they feel inside themselves, and (7)________ it hard to resist commenting on a change which is having such an evident (8)________ on everyone. “Nice day, isn’t it?” is much more than simply a comment on the state of the weather; it is a comment on the human state (9)________, an acknowledgement that the tenability of our place in the universe (10)________ on the existence of a community of human feeling. Part 3: Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each question.(10 points) There is one kind of pain for which nobody has yet found a cure – the pain that comes from the ending of a relationship. The relationship could be a marriage, a love affair or a deep friendship, in fact, any strong emotional tie between people. Such a relationship may come to an abrupt but premeditated end or it may simply fade away slowly as people and circ*mstances change. You may be the one to “break it off”, with a short note or a brief phone call. Or you may be on the receiving end, like the soldier who dreads getting a “Dear John” letter from a girlfriend who has got tired of waiting. But however it ended and whoever decided to end it, the pain is equally hard to bear. It is a sort of death, and it requires the same period of mourning, the same time for grief. Although there is no cure for grief, we cannot help looking for one, to ease the pain and to make us forget our tears. We seek refuge in other relationships, we keep ourselves busy with work, we try to immerse ourselves in our hobbies. Perhaps we start to drink more than we should to drown our sorrows or we follow the conventional advice and join a club or society. But these things only relieve the symptoms of the illness, they cannot cure for it. Moreover, we are always in a hurry to get rid of our grief. It is as if we were ashamed of it. We feel that we should be able to “pull ourselves together”. We try to convince ourselves, as we bite on the pillow, that we are much too old to be crying. Some people bury
their grief deep inside themselves, so that nobody will guess what they are going through. Others seek relief by pouring their hearts out to their friends, or to anyone else who can offer a sympathetic shoulder to cry on. But after a while, even our friends start to show their impatience, and suggest with their reproachful glances that it is about time we stopped crying. They, too, are in a hurry for the thing to be over. It is not easy to explain why we adopt this attitude to emotional pain, when we would never expect anyone to overcome physical pain simply by an effort of will power. Part of the answer must lie in the nature of grief itself. When the love affair dies, you cannot believe that you will ever find another person to replace the one who has gone so completely out of your life. Even after many, many months, when you think that you have begun to learn to live without your lost love, something-a familiar place, a snatch of music, a whiff of perfume- will suddenly bring the bitter – sweet memories flooding back. You choke back the tears and the desperate, almost angry, feeling that you are no better now than the day the affair ended. And yet, grief is like an illness that must run its course. Memories do fade eventually, a healing skin does start to grow over the wound, the intervals between sudden glimpses of the love you have lost do get longer. Bit by bit, life resumes the normal flow. Such is the complexity of human nature that we can even start to feel guilty as these things start to happen, as if it were an insult to our lost love that we can begin to forget at all. The important thing to admit about grief, then, is that it will take its time. By trying to convince ourselves that it ought to be over sooner, we create an additional tension which can only make things worse. People who have gone through the agony of a broken relationship – and there are few who have not- agree that time is the “greater healer”. How much time is needed will vary from person to person, but psychiatrists have “a rule of thumb”: grief will last as long as the original relationship lasted. The sad thing is that, when the breakdown occurs, we can only stumble over the stories beneath our feet. It is dark ahead, and you will feel painfully many times before we begin to see the light at the end of the tunnel. 1. Psychiatrists tell you that grief will last as long as the original relationship. This calculation is _________ A. based on a deep understanding of human nature B. generally true but with many exceptions C. the result of scientific research D. no more than a hopeful guess 2. Relationships often come to an end because _________ A. people do not realize the pain they can cause B. very few people really know how to love C. the feeling of the people were not very deep D. people do not always stay the same
3. You tell your friends about your unhappiness because _________ A. you want them to feel sorry for you B. you hope it will make you feel better C. you want them to hear the story from you D. you feel sure that they have had similar experiences 4. If you seek advice on what to do about a broken relationship, you will probably be told to _________ A. keep busy at work B. find someone else C. pull yourself together (use your will power) D. join a club. 5. When your friends get tired of listening to you they will _________ A. tell you to pull yourself together B. try to avoid your company C. show by their expressions that they have had enough D. help you to get over your grief 6. Often we are ashamed when we cry because _________ A. only children and babies cry B. we are worried about what others will think of us C. we do not expect our unhappiness to last so long D. we think it is a childish thing to do 7. Memories continue to upset you, and this makes you feel that you _________ A. will never get over your grief
B. have no will power
C. are utterly alone
D. have made no progress at all
8. If we try to recover too quickly from grief, we shall make ourselves _________ A. nervous
B. tense
C. ill
D. unpopular
9. We are upset by reminders of our lost love because they come so _________ A. unexpectedly
B. rapidly
C. frequently
D. rarely
10. One way to get over a broken relationship is to _________ A. try to forget the other person
B. write a “Dear John” letter
C. make a brief phone call
D. form new relationships
Part 4: Read the following passage and do the tasks that follows .(10 points) You are going to read an article about student accommodation in which four college students talk about the place they live. Choose from the people (A-D). The people may be chosen more than once. There is an example at the beginning (0). Which student says?
0. My accommodation seems quite expensive.
A
1. I have plenty of storage space.
………
2. My college doesn’t provide accommodation.
………
3. My room is maintained to a high standard.
………
4. I have washing facilities in my room.
………
5. I would like to have more independence.
………
6. I had to buy some extra electrical equipment.
………
7. I would like to have more private space.
………
8. It’s easy to keep in touch with people here.
………
9. My room is not very well-furnished.
………
10. This is the only place where I can afford to live.
………
A. Matthew Wren I live in what’s called a hall of residence where I get full board as well as a room. It’s not exactly what you call cheap, though, I pay £87 per week for my single room and three meals a day. This also includes the use of a washing machine and ironing board. But I can’t complain because my room has just been re-carpeted, the furniture’s new and the cleaner comes in daily. The main drawback is sharing the bathroom with nine other students and we don’t have any kitchen facilities. The first thing I did when I arrived was buy myself a mini-fridge, so I could have cool drinks whenever I wanted. But, we’re on the university network, so I have access to the Internet and free e-mail from my room, and we get room phones so I can ring friends around the campus for nothing. B. Kerry Dunnock The city where I study is appalling for cheap accommodation, and the college has nothing of its own to offer you, but I was lucky, I found a room in a nice little terraced house with central heating which I share with three other girls. I have a yearly contract with a private landlady and I pay £220 a month for my study bedroom. This is not bad as it also has a large walk-in wardrobe where I put all my stuff. I share the bathroom, kitchen and a small living room with the other girls, and we split all the bills between us. We tried to make a rota for the washing up, cleaning and putting out the rubbish, but it’s not always strictly followed. Cooking your own food is much cheaper than eating at college, and I like it because I have what I want when I want it. C. Becky Martin I live in a college-owned self-catering block. There’s not much luxury, but I get value for money. For my £38 per week rent, I get a reasonably-sized room with an old wardrobe, a tiny desk, one shelf, a rather stained carpet and a sink. When I first moved in, I probably spent more on decoration than I did on food. My only real complaint, though, was that I had to buy a new pillow because the one I was provided with
felt like a plastic bag full of old towels. I share the kitchen and bathroom with six other girls. One of them has a TV in her room, but she is a bit possessive about it. The fridge is not huge, so you’re always trying to squeeze your food into the last remaining inch of space. I twice set off the fire alarm by burning my dinner, so tended to give up on cooking after that. We eat a lot of take-aways. In the next block there’s a games room where we hang out which has things like table football and satellite TV if you need a break from studying. D. Karl Yorat I made the big mistake of going to a college fairly near my home. It isn’t so much the course that I don’t like, but the fact that I’m stuck at my parents’ house so I don’t feel in touch with what’s going on at campus. In some ways I’m lucky because I’m not paying out all the money for food and rent that other people have to find, and I have someone to do my washing, but I don’t have the same amount of freedom or privacy as the people who’re living away from home. I even have to share a room with my younger brother. When I told my parents I wanted to move out and go into college accommodation, they said they’d stop supporting me financially. So, in the end, I had to give up the idea, that hasn’t made any of us very happy. (Reading Test – B2) Part 5: Read the text and do the tasks that follows .(IELTS Reading Strategies) (15 points) Party Labels in Mid-Eighteenth Century England A. Until the late 1950s the Whig interpretation of English history in the eighteenth century prevailed. This was successfully challenged by Lewis Namier, who proposed, based on an analysis of the voting records of MPs from the 1760 intake following the accession to the throne of George III that the accepted Whig/Tory division of politics did not hold. He believed that the political life of the period could be explained without these party labels, and that it was more accurate to characterise political division in terms of the Court versus Country. B. An attempt was then made to use the same methodology to determine whether the same held for early eighteenth century politics. To Namier’s chagrin this proved that at the end of Queen Anne’s reign in 1714 voting in parliament was certainly based on party interest, and that Toryism and Whiggism were distinct and opposed political philosophies. Clearly, something momentous had occurred between 1714 and 1760 to apparently wipe out party ideology. The Namierite explanation is that the end of the Stuart dynasty on the death of Queen Anne and the beginning of the Hanoverian with the accession of George I radically altered the political climate. C. The accession of George I to the throne in 1715 was not universally popular. He was German, spoke little English, and was only accepted because he promised to maintain the Anglican religion. Furthermore, for those Tory members of government under Anne, he was nemesis, for his enthronement finally broke the hereditary principle central to Tory philosophy, confirming the right of
parliament to depose or select a monarch. Moreover, he was aware that leading Tories had been in constant communication with the Stuart court in exile, hoping to return the banished King James II. As a result, all Tories were expelled from government, some being forced to escape to France to avoid execution for treason. D. The failure of the subsequent Jacobite rebellion of 1715, where certain Tory magnates tried to replace George with his cousin James, a Stuart, albeit a Catholic, was used by the Whig administration to identify the word “Tory” with treason. This was compounded by the Septennial Act of 1716, limiting elections to once every seven years, which further entrenched the Whig’s power base at the heart of government focussed around the crown. With the eradication of one of the fundamental tenets of their philosophy, alongside the systematic replacement of all Tory positions by Whig counterparts, Tory opposition was effectively annihilated. There was, however, a grouping of Whigs in parliament who were not part of the government. E. The MPs now generally referred to as the “Independent Whigs” inherently distrusted the power of the administration, dominated as it was by those called “Court Whigs”. The Independent Whig was almost invariably a country gentleman, and thus resisted the growth in power of those whose wealth was being made on the embryonic stock market. For them the permanency of land meant patriotism, a direct interest in one’s nation, whilst shares, easily transferable, could not be trusted. They saw their role as a check on the administration, a permanent guard against political corruption, the last line of defence of the mixed constitution of monarchy, aristocracy, and democracy. The reaction against the growing mercantile class was shared by the Tories, also generally landed country gentlemen. It is thus Namier’s contention, and that of those who follow his work, that by the 1730s the Tories and the Independent Whigs had fused to form a Country opposition to the Court administration, thus explaining why voting records in 1760 do not follow standard party lines. F. It must be recognised that this view is not universally espoused. Revisionist historians such as Linda Colley dispute that the Tory party was destroyed during this period, and assert the continuation of the Tories as a discrete and persistent group in opposition, allied to the Independent Whigs but separate. Colley’s thesis is persuasive, as it is clear that some, at least, regarded themselves as Tories rather than Whigs. She is not so successful in proving the persistence either of party organisation beyond family connection, or of ideology, beyond tradition. Furthermore, while the terms “Tory” and “Whig” were used frequently in the political press, it was a device of the administration rather than the opposition. As Harris notes in his analysis of the “Patriot” press of the 1740s, there is hardly any discernible difference between Tory and Whig opposition pamphlets, both preferring to describe themselves as the “Country Interest”, and attacking “the Court”. Questions 1- 5 Reading Passage has 6 paragraphs (A-F). Choose the most suitable heading for each paragraph from the List of headings below.
One of the headings has been done for you as an example. NB. There are more headings than paragraphs, so you will not use all of them. 1.
Paragraph A
2.
Paragraph B
3.
Paragraph C
4.
Paragraph D
5.
Paragraph E
Example: Paragraph F Answer: iii List of headings i.
The Whig/Tory division discounted
ii.
Maintaining the Anglican religion
iii.
The fusion theory challenged and supported
iv.
The consequences of George I’s accession
v.
The Tory landowners
vi.
Political divisions in the early 1700s
vii.
The failure of the Jacobean rebellion
viii.
The Tory opposition effectively destroyed
ix.
The fusion of the Independent Whigs and the Tory landowners
x.
The Whig interpretation of history
Questions 6-10 Do the statements below agree with the information in Reading Passage? Write: Yes
if the statement agrees with the information in the passage
No
if the statement contradicts the information in the passage
Not Given if there is no information about the statement in the passage Example: Until the late 1950s the Whig interpretation of English history was the one that was widely accepted. Answer: Yes. 6. According to Namier, political divisions in the mid18th century were not related to party labels. 7. According to Namier, something happened between 1714 and 1760 to affect party ideology. 8. George I was not liked by everyone. 9. The Independent Whigs were all landowners with large estates. 10. Neither the Independent Whigs, nor the Tories trusted the mercantile classes.
11.
CHUYÊN LÊ KHIẾT - QUẢNG NGÃI
A. LISTENING (5.0 pts) Part 1. For questions 1-5, listen to the recording and decide whether the following statements are true (T) or false (F). Write your answers in the corresponding boxes provided. (1.0 pt) 1. The main purpose of the service is to educate people. 2. The number of people working at Sydney Airport is 360. 3. Dogs are chosen according to their skill at locating narcotics. 4. People carrying items that are not allowed will be refused on board. 5. Plant seeds are not allowed to be taken on the flight. Your answers 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Part 2. For questions 6-10, listen to the recording and answer the following questions with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS. Write your answers in the space provided. (1.0 pt) 6. What does the man want to have? …………………………………………………………………………………………………… 7. What does the man think of children nowadays? …………………………………………………………………………………………………… 8. What kind of people does the man want to teach? …………………………………………………………………………………………………… 9. What did the man do when he encountered former students? …………………………………………………………………………………………………… 10. What is the man greatest weakness? …………………………………………………………………………………………………… Part 3. For questions 11-15, listen to an interview with a British politician. Choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. Write your answers in the corresponding boxes provided. (1.0 pt) 11. Susan says that she particularly dislikes politicians who ………………. A. pretend to feel strongly about issues. B. disguise their real beliefs. C. are indecisive about issues. D. openly treat voters with contempt. 12. When she had her disagreement with Martin Jones, Susan …………….. A. decided that personal ambition was not her main motivation. B. began to feel that she had failed as a politician. C. felt that her point of view was not correctly understood. D. regretted the effect it would have on her future in politics. 13. What was Susan’s attitude to involving colleagues in the controversy? A. She realized that they were unlikely to share her point of view. B. She was reluctant to do so because she was not sure she was right. C. She thought that involving colleagues would make things worse. D. She felt they should decide for themselves whether she had a point. 14. When asked whether her opinion of her colleagues has changed, Susan says that A. Their reaction has made her reluctant to get into the same position again. B. she prefers those who criticized her to those who kept their opinions private. C. They may come a time when she does not publicly support them on issues. D. politician place too much emphasis on their personal opinions of each other.
15. Susan thinks she was considered mad by some other politicians because A. Her behaviour was out of character. B. they found her intimidating. C. she did not conform. D. her unselfishness shamed them. Your answers 11. 12. 13. 14.
15.
B. LEXICO AND GRAMMAR (3.0 pts) Part 1: Choose the answer A, B, C, or D that best completes each of the following sentences. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (1.0 pt) 1. Most teenagers go through a rebellious ……………….. for a few years but they soon grow out of it. A. stint B. span C. duration D. phase 2. I bumped into John in Athens and he ……………….. me before I had time to speak first. A. accosted B. ajar C. brawled D. jolted 3. She was so infuriated that she found it difficult to ……………….. her temper. A. contain B. abstain C. retain D. detain 4. My uncle pulled a few ……………….. and got me a job in the company where he works. A. ropes B. threads C. strings D. chords 5. The room was ……………….. decorated in gold and silver; it was quite simply over the top. A. ostentatiously B. tantalizingly C. tactfully D. benevolently 6. The prices were ……………….. and there was little value for money to be had in any of the items on the menu. A. oppressive B. exacting C. extortionate D. fraudulent 7. Mr. Parris said he’d like ……………….. by Monday, if that’s possible. A. the report finished B. finished the report C. the report will be finished D. have the report finished 8. I always get ……………….. in my stomach before visiting the dentist. A. worms B. butterflies C. crabs D. hedgehogs 9. Nobody wanted to tell Richard he wasn’t invited, but I drew the short ……………….. so I had to do it. A. straw B. stick C. pole D. rod 10. Living as a foreigner in such a(n) ……………….. place as this, it is hardly surprising that I get started at walking down the street; I stand out like a sore thumb. A. eminent B. convivial C. extraneous D. hom*ogeneous Your answers: 1.
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Part 2: The passage below contains 10 mistakes. Identify the mistakes and write the corrections in the corresponding numbered boxes. (0.5 pt) Until recently, we have confined ourselves for our own solar system in the search for life, partly because we have not had evidence for the existence of other solar systems. Furthermore, our telescopes have not been powerful enough to detect planets. But not long ago, a technique was developed that could ascertain reliably whether stars have planets orbiting it. Basically, this technique relies upon our ability to detect with some degree of precision how much light a star is giving. If this change for a brief period, it is probably because a large object – a planet – is passing in front of it. At first, the technique could only establish the existence of a very large planet with an elliptical orbit that brought it in close proximity to the star. This was one of the limits of the technique: life could not exist on such large planets.
Furthermore, the orbit of the planet would preclude the possibility of other, smaller planets orbiting the same star. Therefore, that particular planetary system could be effectively ruled out in terms of the search for life. However, astronomers using an Anglo-American telescope in New South Wales now believe they have pinpointed a planetary system which resembles to our own. For the first time, they identified a large planet, twice the size of Jupiter, orbiting a star like the sun, at much the same distance from its parent star as Jupiter is to the sun. And this is the vital point about their discovery: there is at last a theoretical possibility that smaller planets could be orbiting inside the orbit of this planet. Your answers: Line
Mistake
Correction
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. Part 3. Complete each of the following sentences with a suitable preposition or particle. Write your answers in the space provided. (0.5 pt) 1. Steve threw______ his chances of passing by spending too much time on the first question. A. on B. off C. away D. in 2. This pesticide kills insects______ contact. A. with B. at C. for D. on 3. Steve used to be easy to work with, but since his promotion he’s begun to______ . A. throw his weight around B. throw in the towel C. throw him off balance D. turn up trumps 4. It takes a very determined person to achieve results as good as this; you really have to put your______ to it. A. mind B. head C. brain D. thoughts 5. They are always on the______ young and versatile people. A. search for B. look out for C. need for D. terms of Your answers 1.
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Part 4. Complete the following passage with the appropriate forms from the words given in the box.(1.0 pt) ACCESS APPEAR COMMIT DENY EXCLUDE IMMERSE INFANT INSTITUTE LONELY SEE One of the most challenging aspects of the science anthropology comes from its fieldwork. Certainly, in its (1)________ as a profession, anthropology was distinguished by its concentration on so-called primary societies in which social (2)________ appear to be fairly limited and social interaction to be conducted almost (3)_________ face – to – face. Such societies, it was felt, provided
anthropologists with a valuable (4)________into the workings of society that contrasted with the many complexities of more highly developed societies. There was also a sense that the way of life represented by these smaller societies were rapidly (5)________and that preserving a record of them was a matter of some urgency. The (6)________ of anthropologists to the first – hand collection of data led them to some of the most (7)________ places on earth. Most often they worked alone. Such lack of contact with other people created feelings of intense (8)________ in some anthropologists, especially in the early stages of fieldwork. Nevertheless, this process of (9)________ in a totally alien culture continues to attract men and women to anthropology, and is (10)_________ the most effective way of understanding in depth how other people see the world. Your answers: 1.
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III. READING (6.0 pts): Part 1. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (1.0 pt) Despite the continued (1) ………… of those early town perks, it wasn't until the Depression that modern Hershey started to take shape. Perhaps the only town in the country actually to (2) ………… during the 1930s, it thrived because Hershey vowed his Utopia would never see a breadline. Instead he (3) ………… a massive building boom that gave rise to the most visited buildings in today's Hershey and delivered wages to more than 600 workers. He admitted that his (4) …………were partly selfish: "If I don’t provide work for them, I'll have to feed them. And since building materials are now at their lowest cost levels, I'm going to build and give them jobs." He seems to have (5) …………no expense; most of the new buildings were strikingly (6) ………… The first to be finished was the three-million-dollar limestone Community Center, home to the 1,904-seat Venetian-style Hershey Community Theater, which has played (7)…………since 1933 to touring Broadway shows and to music, dance, and opera performances. It offers just as much to look at when the lights are on and the curtains closed. The floors in the (8) ………… named Grand Lobby are polished Italian lava rock, surrounded by marble walls and capped with a bas-relief ceiling showing sheaves of wheat, beehives, swans, and scenes from Roman mythology. With the (9) ………… inner foyer, Hershey thumbed his nose even harder at the ravages of the Depression: The arched ceiling is tiled in gold, the fire curtain bears a painting of Venice, and the ceiling is (10) ………… with 88 tiny light-bulbs to re-create a star-lit night. 1. A. flexibility 2. A. prosper 3. A. trusted 4. A. pretensions 5. A. spared 6. A. impoverished 7. A. hosting 8. A. aptly 9. A. dizzying 10. A. holed Your answers: 1. 2.
B. rigidity B. decline B. funded B. objections B. spent B. unattractive B. housing B. inappropriately B. gaudy B. studded
3.
4.
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C. elasticity C. get on C. accounted C. preoccupation C. allowed C. poor C. host C. seemingly C. dazzling C. supported
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D. resilience D. flower D. stocked D. intentions D. justified D. opulent D. hom*ogeneously D. frightfully D. bland D. magnified
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Part 2: Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only one word in each space. Write your answers in the space provided. (1.5 pts.) Throughout our lives, right from the moment when as infants we cry to express our hunger, we are engaged in social interaction of one form or another. Each and (1) ______ time we encounter fellow human beings, some kind of social interaction will take place, (2)_______ it’s getting on a bus and paying the fare for the journey, or socializing with friends. It goes without (3) ______, therefore, that we need the ability to communicate. Without some method of (4)_______ intentions, we would be at a(n) (5)_______ loss when it came to interacting socially. Communication (6)_______ the exchange of information which can be anything from a gesture to a friend signalling boredom to the presentation of a university thesis which may only ever be read by a (7)_______ of others, or it could be something in (8)_______ the two. Our highly developed languages set us (9)_______ from animals. But for these languages, we could not communicate sophisticated or abstract ideas. Nor could we talk or write about people or objects not immediately present. (10)_______ we restricted to discussing objects already present, we would be able to make abstract generalizations about the world. Your answers: 1.
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Part 3: Read the following passage and choose the best answer. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (1.0 pt) Continents and ocean basins represent the largest identifiable bodies on Earth. On the solid portions of the planet, the second most prominent features are flat plains, elevated plateaus, and large mountain ranges. In geography, the term “continent” refers to the surface of continuous landmasses that together comprise about 29.2% of the planet’s surface. On the other hand, another definition is prevalent in the general use of the term that deals with extensive mainlands, such as Europe or Asia, that actually represent one very large landmass. Although all continents are bounded by water bodies or high mountain ranges, isolated mainlands, such as Greenland and India-Pakistan areas are called subcontinents. In some circles, the distinction between continents and large islands lies almost exclusively in the size of particular landmass. The analysis of compression and tension in the earth’s crust has determined that continental structures are composed of layers that underlie continental shelves. A great deal of disagreement among geologists surrounds the issue of exactly how many layers underlie each landmass because of their distinctive mineral and chemical composition. It is also quite possible that the ocean floor rests on the top of unknown continents that have not yet been explored. The continental crust is believed to have been formed by means of a chemical reaction when lighter materials separated from heavier ones, thus settling at various levels within the crust. Assisted by the measurements of the specifics within crust formations by means of monitoring earthquakes, geologists can speculate that a chemical split occurred to form the atmosphere, sea water, and the crust before it solidified many centuries ago. Although each continent has its special features, all consist of various combinations of components that include shields, mountain belts, intracratonic basins, margins, volcanic plateaus, and blockvaulted belts. The basic differences among continents lie in the proportion and the composition of these features relative to the continent size. Climatic zones have a crucial effect on the weathering and formation of the surface features, soil erosion, soil deposition, land formation, vegetation, and human activities. Mountain belts are elongated narrow zones that have a characteristic folded sedimentary organization of layers. They are typically produced during substantial crustal movements, which generate faulting and mountain building. When continental margins collide, the rise of a marginal edge leads to the formation
of large mountain ranges, as explained by the plate tectonic theory.This process also accounts for the occurrence of mountain belts in ocean basins and produces evidence for the ongoing continental plate evolution. 1. What does this passage mainly discuss? A.Continental drift and division B.Various definitions of the term “continent” C. Continental structure and crust D. Scientific analyses of continental crusts 2. According to the passage, how do scientists define continents? A.As masses of land without divisions B. As extensive bodies of land C. As the largest identifiable features D. As surgical compositions and ranges 3. In paragraph one, the word ‘ bounded” is closest in meaning to______ . A.covered B. convened C. delimited D. dominat 4. The author of the passage implies that the disagreement scientists is based on the fact that______. A. each continent has several planes and shelves. B. continents have various underlying layers of crust. C. continents undergo compression and experience tension. D. continents have different chemical makeup. 5. The word “specifics” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to______ . A. specialities B. speculations C. exact details D. precise movements 6. The author of the passage implies that______. A. it is not known exactly how the continental crust was formed B. geologists have neglected the exploration of the ocean floor C. scientists have concentrated on monitoring earthquakes D. the earth’s atmosphere split into water and solids 7. According to the passage, what are the differences in the structure of continents? A. The proportional size of continents to one another. B. Ratios of major components and their comparative size. C. The distinctive features of their elements. D. Climatic zones and their effect on the surface features. 8. In paragraph four, the phrase “This process” refers to ______ . A. continental collision B. mountain ranges C. the rise of margins D. plate tectonic theory 9. The author of the passage implies that______. A. the process of mountain formation has not been accounted for B. mountain ranges on the ocean floor lead to surface mountain building C. faulting and continental margins are parts of plate edges D. the process of continent formation has not been completed 10. The word “evidence” in paragraph four is closest in meaning to______ . A. eventually B. confirmation C. exemplification D. challenge Your answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.
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Part 4: Read the passage and do the tasks that follow. (1.0 pt)
Trees in troubles What is causing the decline of the world’s giant forests? A. Big trees are incredibly important ecologically. For a start, they sustain countless other species. They provide shelter for many animals, and their trunks and branches can become gardens, hung with
green ferns, orchids and bromeliads, coated with mosses and draped with vines. With their tall canopies basking in the sun, they capture vast amounts of energy. This allows them to produce crops of fruit, flowers and foliage that sustain much of the animal life in the forest. B. Only a small number of tree species have the genetic capacity to grow really big. The mightiest are native to North American, but big trees grow all over the globe, from the tropics to the boreal forests of the high latitudes. To achieve giant stature, a tree needs three things: the right place to establish its seedling, good growing conditions and lots of time with low adult mortality. Disrupt any of these, and you can lose your biggest trees. C. In some parts of the world, populations of big trees are dwindling because their seedlings cannot survive or grow. In southern India, for instance, an aggressive non-native shrub, Lantana camara, is invading the floor of many forests. Lantana grows so thickly that young trees often fail to take roof. With no young trees to replace them, it is only a matter of time before most of the big trees disappear. Across much of northern Australia, gamba grass from Africa is overturning native savannah woodlands. The grass grows up to four metres tall and burns fiercely, creating super-hot fires that cause catastrophic tree mortality. D. Without the right growing conditions trees cannot get really big, and there is some evidence to suggest tree growth could slow in a warmer world, particularly in environments that are already warm. Having worked for decades at La Selva Biological Station in Puerto Viejo de Sarapiqui, Costa Rica, David and Deborah Clark and colleagues have shown that tree growth there declines markedly in warmer years. “During the day, their photosynthesis shuts down when it gets too warm, and at night they consume more energy because their metabolic rate increases, much as a reptile’s would when it gets warmer,” explains David Clark. With less energy produced in warmer years and more being consumed just to survive, there is even less energy available for growth. E. The Clark’s hypothesis is correct, means tropical forests would shrink over time. The largest, oldest trees would progressively die off and tend not to be replaced. According to the Clarks, this might trigger a destabilization of the climate; as older trees die, forests would release some of their stored carbon into the atmosphere, prompting a vicious cycle of further warming, forest shrinkage and carbon emissions. F. Big trees face threats from elsewhere. The most serious is increasingly mortality, especially of mature trees. Across much of the planet, forests of slow-growing ancient trees have been cleared for human use. In western North America, most have been replaced by monocultures of fast-growing conifers. Siberia’s forests are being logged at an incredible rate. Logging in tropical forests is selective but the timber cutters usually prioritize the biggest and oldest trees. In the Amazon, my colleagues and I found the mortality rate for the biggest trees had tripled in small patches of rainforest surrounded by pasture land. This happens for two reasons. First, as they grow taller, big trees become ticker and less flexible; when winds blow across the surrounding cleared land, there is nothing to stop their acceleration. When they hit the trees, the impact can snap them in half. Second, rainforests fragments dry out when surrounded by dry, hot pastures and resulting drought can have devastating consequences: one-four year study has shown that death rates will double for smaller trees but will increase 4.5 times for bigger trees. G. Particular enemies to large trees are insects and disease. Across vast areas of western North America, increasingly mild winters are causing massive outbreaks of bark beetle. These tiny creatures can kill entire forests as they tunnel their way through the inside of trees. In both North America and Europe, fungus-causing diseases such as Dutch elm disease have killed off millions of stately trees that once gave beauty to forests and cities. As a result of human activity, such enemies reach even the remotest corners of the world, threatening to make the ancient giants a thing of the past.
A. Choose the correct heading for each paragraph from the list of headings below. Write the appropriate numbers (i-xii) in boxes 1-5. Paragraphs C and G have been done for you.
List of headings i. How deforestation harms isolated trees ii. How other plants can cause harm iii. Which big trees support the most diverse species iv. Impact of big tree loss on the wider environment v. Measures to prevent further decline in big tree populations. vi. How wildlife benefits from big trees vii. Risk from pests and infection viii. Ways in which industry uses big tree products ix. How higher temperatures slow the rate of tree growth x. Factors that enable trees to grow to significant heights. 1. Paragraph A ........................... 2. Paragraph B ........................... Paragraph C .......ii.................... 3. Paragraph D ........................... 4. Paragraph E ........................... 5. Paragraph F ........................... Paragraph G ........vii................... B. Complete the sentences below. Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer. Write your answers in Boxes 6-10. 6. The biggest trees in the world can be found in .................................................. 7. Some trees in northern Australia die because of .................................................. made worse by gamba grass. 8. The Clarks believe that the release of .................................................. from dead trees could lead to the death of more trees. 9. Strong .................................................. are capable of damaging tall trees in the Amazon. 10. In western Northern America, a species of ................................................. has destroyed many trees. Part 5. You are going to read a newspaper article in which people talk about starting up their own business late in life. For questions 1 - 10, choose from paragraphs (A-E). When more than one answer is required, these may be given in any order. (1.5 pts) the unexpected demands of the business. an established network of business contacts a prejudicial assessment of a person's value the cost of setting up a business
1…………………… 2…………………… 3…………………… 4…………………… 5…………………… the confidence that comes with maturity 6…………………… plans to branch out 7…………………… a product that aims to help people fill in official forms 8…………………… the fact that few companies cater for a certain group of 9…………………… people the advantage of employing older people 10…………………… STARTING OVER
More and more people over fifty are starting up in business for themselves. What are their reasons - and why are so many of them successful? A When I was fifty-three, I was made redundant almost literally overnight when the company I worked for was taken over by a multinational. The managing director called me into his office the following Monday and told me I was no longer on the payroll. It was a shock and I felt really depressed. I was also anxious about the future because we still had a mortgage to pay off on our house, and my husband’s income couldn’t cover our hefty monthly expenses. At the same time, I didn’t feel I was ready for retirement, and to be honest, I was infuriated by the arrogance of the company, which appeared to believe I was too old to be useful any longer. So I gave some serious thought to starting up a business of my own. I’m an accountant, and for years I’d been advising friends about finances and helping them sort out their books, so I knew there were plenty of small businesses out there who would welcome the sort of services I could offer. The initial outlay for office equipment was pretty low, all things considered. So I set up as a consultant to people who want to branch out on their own, like me, and I find it extremely rewarding. B About seven years ago, after being more or less forced to take early retirement, I looked around for an occupation to fill up my days and eventually decided I’d set up a company specialising in all- inclusive trips for retired people to domestic UK resorts. There seemed to be a dearth of companies catering for the over sixties, which is ironic because they’re the ones who often have the leisure and the income to take advantage of opportunities for travel. I'd say someone like me has certain advantages when it comes to setting up in business. I spent years running a travel agency and I know a lot of people in the industry. They have been great, offering advice as well as concrete help. At first, there was a lot of work involved and I had to travel around the country a great deal making new contacts, but now I don’t have to be away from home very often at all. I enjoy what I do, especially because I’ve always worked with people, and without the daily contact I’d go mad! C Three years ago I decided I’d had enough of being a teacher, so I retired and started a pottery business. Now we’ve got a fair-sized factory, and we’re about to expand into glassware as well. Most of the people who work for me are more or less my generation. I find they tend to be more loyal; they don’t rush off if they think they can see a better prospect elsewhere. It’s also good for the economy when some of these older workers return to employment. It seems to me that people who start up businesses at my age are realistic: they don’t aim to be millionaires, and they are less inclined to take unnecessary risks. So I’d guess that fewer businesses started by older people go bust in the first few years. As for me, I must admit I miss teaching at times, but we now have a few apprentices, and working with them is rather like being a teacher in some ways. Of course, running a business is a responsibility, especially since I know the people who work for me rely on the income from their jobs, but it’s also a very stimulating, challenging experience. D When I left the company I’d been with for twenty- five years, they gave me a rather good retirement package, which meant I had a reasonable amount of cash to invest in my own company. It was something I’d longed to do for years. I’ve always been a keen gardener, you see, so I started a landscape gardening company. All the physical work involved means I'm fitter than I have been for years! One thing that did surprise me at the start was how much official paperwork I have to deal with. It’s exhausting filling in all those forms, but apart from that, I find the work itself rewarding. As for the future, who knows? Obviously, I wouldn’t want to be travelling around the country and working outdoors as much when I’m over seventy, although on the other hand, I firmly believe that working has kept me active and alert, so why should I give it up until I really have to? E My career was in accounting, and I knew that there was shortly going to be a change in the way selfemployed people fill in tax returns. So when I was made redundant, I thought it would be a good idea to produce software showing people exactly how to go about it, and that was the first item my company put on the market. With my experience it was relatively easy to come up with the material - I wrote it all myself - and then I got together with a software producer to make the CD-ROMs. My wife’s first reaction was that I should try something completely different from what I’d been doing all
my working life, but I figured I’d be better off sticking to what I know. Things are going well, although I’ve deliberately not tried to expand the business - it can be stressful for a boss when a company expands fast, and I prefer to take things easy and enjoy what I do. Of course, there have been some tricky moments, but I can honestly say I’ve never regretted starting my own firm. I’m sure I wouldn’t have had the nerve to do it when I was younger, but I’m very glad I did. D. WRITING (6.0 pts) Part 2: Chart description (1.5 pts) The chart below shows the main causes of land damage in four different areas in the world.
Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make comparisons where relevant. Write at least 150 words.
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CHUYÊN LÀO CAI
A. LISTENING (5.0 pts) Part 1. For question 1-5, you will hear an online guide giving a tour of the home of the future. Listen to the recording and decide whether the following statements are true (T) or false (F). Write your answers in the corresponding boxes provided. (1.0 pt) In the home of the future, _________ 1. People will be woken up by their body temperature. 2. People will wear the clothes that make them more intelligent. 3. The house will be able to control the shower temperature. 4. The internet will be able to help find something you’ve lost. 5. The fridge will deliver the milk when people are low on milk. Your answers 1. 2. 3. 4.
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Part 2: For question 6-10, you will hear a monologue on the subject of volunteer work in Africa. Listen to the recording and answer the following questions with NO MORE THAN FIVE WORDS. Write your answers in the space provided. (1.0 pt) 6. Which two things are uncommon in rural areas in Africa? ………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…….
7. Which areas generally have more conservative populations? ………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…….
8. What two new things will your body need to adapt to? ………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…….
9. Where do many volunteers and travellers relate their experience? ………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…….
10. What do you need to work in African countries? ………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…….
Part 3: For questions 11-15, you will hear an interview with Dr Lafford, a leading expert in the field of forensic science. Choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. Write your answers in the corresponding boxes provided. (1.0 pt) 11. According to Dr Lafford, Sherlock Holmes was a good forensic scientist because of his ____ A. psychological insight. B. unbiased approach. C. detailed observations. D. medical knowledge. 12. Forensic scientists pay particular attention to ____ A. evidence of mutual contact. B. items criminals have touched. C. a suspect’s clothing. D. carpet fibres and human hair. 13. Dr Lafford mentions the broken headlight to show that forensic science nowadays is ____ A. more complex than it used to be. B. just as reliable as it was in the past. C. not as time-consuming as it once was. D. more straightforward than it was in the past. 14. According to Dr Lafford, electron microscopes can ____ A. produce conflicting results. B. sometimes damage evidence. C. provide a chemical analysis. D. guarantee total accuracy. 15. Dr Lafford feels that the value of forensic science lies in ____ A. how its significance to a case is explained. B. the use of advanced genetic fingerprinting. C. the posibility of eliminating human error. D. reducing the number of possible suspects. Your answers 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. B. LEXICO AND GRAMMAR (3.0 pts) Part 1: Choose the answer A, B, C, or D that best completes each of the following sentences. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (1.0 pt) 1. Instead of gilding _______the photographs added atmosphere - a sense of history. A. the rose B. the lily C. the daisy D. the jasmine
2. People _______ say that interest rates will have to rise again soon. A. on the block B. in the bag C. on the level D. in the know 3. I can't think _______ of anyone who'd be able to help you. A. on hand B. offhand C. in hand D. at hand 4. If the contract has not been signed by witnesses, it is considered _______. A. null and void B. nook and cranny C. neck and neck D. nip and tuck 5. For that he was put to death and there was, in one respect, a _______ justice about it. A. extreme B. rough C. severe D. tough 6. His future in the job is balanced on a _______. A. cutting-edge B. razor-edge C. cliff-edge D. knife-edge 7. Take these to your stylist, safe in the _______ that your new look is going to suit you! A. awareness B. recognition C. knowledge D. commitment 8. More spaces are needed at less cost not another ______ office block. A. dark horse B. white elephant C. red herring D. brown bear 9. She _______ a raw nerve when she mentioned that job he didn't get. A. touched B. drilled C. pulled D. knocked 10. One wall was filled to ______ with books. A. overstepping B. overlaying C. overflowing D. overfilling Your answers: 1.
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Part 3. Complete each of the following sentences with suitable preposition(s) or particle(s). Write your answers in the space provided. (0.5 pt) 1. Before long the entire service industry is ______ ______ grabs. 2. Loud music hypes ______ the team before a game. 3. Don't hold______ ______ me - I need to know who did it. 4. According to the company, these deals had been _______ the offing for some time. 5. I was lucky because everything fell _______ place at exactly the right time. Your answers 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Part 4: Give the correct form of each bracketed word in the following passage. Write your answers in the space provided. (1.0 pt) The University of Southern California rescinded the admissions of a half-dozen students, and several other colleges and universities pledged to take a closer look at their admissions processes as 1.(FALL)_______ continued from an admissions scandal that implicated coaches, athletic department administrators and 33 wealthy, well-connected parents who allegedly schemed to get their children admitted to prestigious colleges. A 2. (CLASS) _______ lawsuit was filed Wednesday on behalf of applicants who were denied admission to several universities affected by the scandal. It alleged that those schools failed to take adequate steps to 3. (SAFE)_______ against fraud, depriving the applicants of a fair shot. And it emerged that the genesis of the FBI investigation came when an investor tipped off agents to the admissions scheme after he was caught 4. (COMMIT)_______ securities fraud. On Tuesday, 50 people were charged or indicted in connection with the scheme, including actors Felicity Huffman and Lori Loughlin and Loughlin’s husband, clothing designer Mossimo Giannulli. Other
parents charged include the owner of a Napa Valley 5. (WINE)________, the wife of an NFL legend, 6.(RANK)_______lawyers, private equity investors, real estate moguls and a media company owner. Questions remain about what will happen to the college students who were admitted under circ*mstances being scrutinized by the FBI. According to the criminal complaint in the case, their parents paid hundreds of thousands of dollars to submit fraudulent test scores and fake athletic 7. (CREDENCE)_______on their behalf. Prosecutors say that with the help of a corrupt college consultant, the parents paid off coaches so their children could pose as athletic 8.(RECRUIT)_______, allowing them to attend selective schools despite 9. (LACK)_______ academic records. Court documents allege the man at the 10. (CENTER)_______of the scandal, William “Rick” Singer, has been helping parents get their children into selective schools this way since at least 2011. Your answers 1. 6. 2. 7. 3. 8. 4. 9. 5. 10. III. READING (6.0 pts): Part 1. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (1.0 pt) Cheetah: not your average big cat That the cheetah is the fastest of the big cats is beyond dispute and common 1.________, with it having reportedly been clocked at speeds in excess of 70mph. However, whilst it has impressive acceleration over short distances, it could not 2.________sustain such speeds for any signifi- cant length of time. Therefore, when hunting, it relies largely on the 3.________of surprise to use its speed to good advantage. Otherwise, in a prolonged hunt, it will 4.________wanting in the stamina department and generally have to abandon the chase. Still on the 5.________of running, incredibly, a sprinting cheetah is actually completely airborne more than fifty percent of the time. Indeed, at full 6.________, its single stride length is an impressive seven metres. Cheetahs are peculiar amongst big cats, though, because, aside from their breath-taking speed, their performance in other areas actually leaves a lot to be 7.________. For instance, their nocturnal vision is little better than our own. Uncharacteristically for a big cat, too, females are 8.________ to be loners, whilst it is males that are more likely to 9.________, frequently in groups up to five. The 10.________ noun for a group of male cheetahs is a coalition. 1. A. knowledge B. fact C. data D. news 2. A. conceivably B. perceivably C. comprehensively D. predictably 3. A. segment B. feature C. portion D. element 4. A. show B. prove C. confirm D. disclose 5. A. course B. field C. subject D. content 6. A. rate B. throttle C. rush D. scurry 7. A. desired B. required C. craved D. fancied 8. A. convinced B. swayed C. prompted D. inclined 9. A. conjoin B. congest C. congregate D. contend 10.A. possessive B. collective C. reciprocal D. indefinite Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. Part 2: Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only one word in each space. Write your answers in the space provided. (1.5 pts.) Tree energy Renewable energy is a key focus of most nations’ energy programmes today, and with countries like Portugal and Costa Rica 1._______ the way in disproving those naysayers who claimed that it would never be sufficiently reliable or commercially viable to provide power on a grand 2.______, it has received even more attention of 3._______. As the level of interest peaks, innovative new ways of generating renewable energy are also being explored. Of course, wind energy has been around for a very long time now; however, researchers in Iowa have been examining it from a different perspective 4._______the box and they may yet prove that it is possible to 5._______ the wheel, so to 6._______ – or the turbine – after all. Inspired by the rustle of the leaves in the trees on a casual stroll one day, it 7._______ to one Iowan scientist 8._______ Eric Henderson that it might be possible to harness low-to-ground wind energy in a way that traditional wind turbines simply cannot, by replicating the conditions he observed. 9._______ , the idea became something of an obsession and he grappled with the notion for some time, researching in-depth the shapes, dynamics and oscillations of tree leaves with the help of two colleagues he recruited from his university. 10._______ , they conceived of the concept of a faux forest, where artificial trees replace woody ones and harness the unexploited energy potential of low-level winds. Your answers: 1. 6. 2. 7. 3. 8. 4. 9. 5. 10. Part 3: Read the following passage and choose the best answer. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (1.0 pt) Ancient Egyptian Sculpture In order to understand ancient Egyptian art, it is vital to know as much as possible of the elite Egyptians' view of the world and the functions and contexts of the formal art produced for them. Without this knowledge we can appreciate only the formal content of Egyptian art, and we will fail to understand why it was produced or the concepts that shaped it and caused it to adopt its distinctive forms. In fact, a lack of understanding concerning the purposes of Egyptian art has often led it to be compared unfavorably with the art of other cultures: Why did the Egyptians not develop sculpture in which the body turned and twisted through space like classical Greek statuary? Why do the artists seem to get left and right confused? And why did they not discover the geometric perspective as European artists did in the Renaissance? The answer to such questions has nothing to do with a lack of skill or imagination on the part of Egyptian artists and everything to do with the purposes for which they were producing their art. The majority of three-dimensional representations, whether standing, seated, or kneeling, exhibit what is called frontality: they face straight ahead, neither twisting nor turning. When such statues are viewed in isolation, out of their original context and without knowledge of their function, it is easy to criticize them for their rigid attitudes that remained unchanged for three thousand years. Frontality is, however, directly related to the functions of Egyptian statuary and the contexts in which the statues were set up. Statues were created not for their decorative effect but to play a primary role in the cults of the gods, the king, and the dead. They were designed to be put in places where these beings could manifest themselves in
order to be the recipients of ritual actions. Thus it made sense to show the statue looking ahead at what was happening in front of it, so that the living performer of the ritual could interact with the divine or deceased recipient. Very often such statues were enclosed in rectangular shrines or wall niches whose only opening was at the front, making it natural for the statue to display frontality. Other statues were designed to be placed within an architectural setting, for instance, in front of the monumental entrance gateways to temples known as pylons, or in pillared courts, where they would be placed against or between pillars: their frontality worked perfectly within the architectural context. Statues were normally made of stone, wood, or metal. Stone statues were worked from single rectangular blocks of material and retained the compactness of the original shape. The stone between the arms and the body and between the legs In standing figures or the legs and the seat in seated ones was not normally cut away. From a practical aspect this protected the figures against breakage and psychologically gives the images a sense of strength and power, usually enhanced by a supporting back pillar. By contrast, wooden statues were carved from several pieces of wood that were pegged together to form the finished work, and metal statues were either made by wrapping sheet metal around a wooden core or cast by the lost wax process'. The arms could be held away from the body and carry separate items in their hands; there is no back pillar. The effect is altogether lighter and freer than that achieved in stone, but because both perform the same function, formal wooden and metal statues still display frontality. 1. The word "vital" in the passage is closest in meaning to _______ A. attractive B. essential C. usual D. practical 2. Paragraph 1 suggests that one reason ancient Egyptian art has been viewed less favorably than other art is that ancient Egyptian art lacks_______ A. realistic sense of human body proportion B. a focus on distinctive forms of varying sizes C. the originality of European art D. examples of formal art that show the human body in motion 3. In paragraph 1, the author mentions all of the following as necessary in appreciating Egyptian art EXCEPT an understanding of _______ A. the reasons why the art was made B. the nature of aristocratic Egyptian beliefs C. the influences of Egyptian art on later art such as classical Greek art D. how the art was used 4. According to paragraph 2, why are Egyptian statues portrayed frontally? A. to create a psychological effect of distance and isolation B. to allow them to fulfill their important role in ceremonies of Egyptian life C. to provide a contrast to statues with a decorative function D. to suggest the rigid, unchanging Egyptian philosophical attitudes 5. The word "context" in the passage is closest in meaning to_______ A. connection B. influence C. environment D. requirement 6. The author mentions "an architectural setting" in the passage in order to_______ A. suggest that architecture was as important as sculpture to Egyptian artists B. offer a further explanation for the frontal pose of Egyptian statues C. explain how the display of statues replaced other forms of architectural decoration D. illustrate the religious function of Egyptian statues 7. The word "they" in the passage refers to_______ A. statues B. gateways C. temples D. pillared courts 8. According to paragraph 3, why were certain areas of a stone statue left uncarved? A. to prevent damage by providing physical stability
B. to emphasize that the material was as important as the figure itself C. to emphasize that the figure was not meant to be a real human being D. to provide another artist with the chance to finish the carving 9. The word "core" in the passage is closest in meaning to_______ A. material B. layer C. center D. frame 10. According to paragraph 3, which of the following statements about wooden statues is true? A. Wooden statues were usually larger than stone statues B. Wooden statues were made from a single piece of wood. C. Wooden statues contained pieces of metal or stone attached to the front. D. Wooden statues had a different effect on the viewer than stone statues. Your answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. Part 4: Read the passage and do the tasks that follow. (1.0 pt) Choose the correct heading for paragraphs B-H from the list of headings below. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. List of Headings I. Different methods of locating and identifying II. A better view of the constellations III. Technological advances in research and development IV. Atmospheric weaknesses of telescopes in orbit V. Different interpretations of star groupings VI. Common misconceptions VII. Bypassing terrestrial limitations VIII. Renewed interest in the stars IX. Ethnic differences in celestial mapping X. Formal marking of constellations XI. Universal myths of constellations XII. Historical and modern reference
Example Answer Paragraph A X 1. Paragraph B ___ 2. Paragraph C ___ 3. Paragraph D ___ 4. Paragraph E ___ 5. Paragraph F ___ 6. Paragraph G ___ 7. Paragraph H ___
A. A constellation is a group of stars which when viewed collectively appear to have a physical proximity in the sky. Constellation boundaries and definitions as used today in Western culture, and as defined by the International Astronomical Union (IAU), were formalised in 1930 by Eugene Delporte. There are 88 official constellations as recognised by the IAU, those visible in the northern hemisphere being based upon those established by the ancient Greeks, The constellations of the southern hemisphere – since invisible to the Greeks due to geographical location – were not defined until later in the early modem era. B. Arguably, the twelve constellations through which the sun passes – as used to represent the signs of the zodiac to define birth characteristics – are the most culturally significant and well known of those established by the ancient Greeks. Cultural differences in Interpretation and definition of star constellations mainly relate to these zodiac interpretations, Chinese constellations, for example, which are different to those defined in the western world due to the independent development of ancient Chinese astronomy, includes 28 ‘Xiu’ or ‘mansions’ instead of the 12 western zodiac counterparts. In Hindu/Vedic astronomy, in which constellations are known as ‘rashis’, 12 rashi corresponding directly to the twelve western star signs are acknowledged; these are however, divided again into 27 ‘Nakshatras’ or ’lunar houses’. Many cultures have an intricate mythology behind the stars and their constellations. In
Greek mythology, for example Pegasus, the winged horse, is said to have sprung from the decapitated head of Medusa, and later was used by the God King Zeus to carry thunder and lightning to Earth, before being put into a constellation. C. In Western astronomy, all modern constellation names derive from Latin, some stars within the constellations are named using the genitive form of the Latin word by using the usual rules of Latin grammar. For example the zodiac sign for the Fish constellation Pisces relates to Piscium. In addition, all constellation names have a standard three-letter abbreviation as assigned by the IAU, under which, for example, Pisces becomes PSC. D. Some star patterns often wrongly considered constellations by laymen are actually ‘asterisms’ – a group of stars that appear to form patterns in the sky - and are not in fact one of the 88 officially divided areas truly defined as a constellation. A famous example of an asterism oft mistaken for a constellation is the Big Dipper’ (as it is termed in North America) or the ‘Plough’ as it is known in the UK. In astronomical terms, this famous star formation is in fact considered only part of the larger constellation known as Ursa Major. E. In order to identify the position of stars relative to the Earth, there are a number of different celestial coordinate systems that cart provide a detailed reference point in space. There are many different systems, all of which are largely similar with the exception of a difference in the position of the fundamental plane – the division between northern and southern hemispheres. The five most common celestial systems are the Horizontal system, the Equatorial system, the Ecliptical system, the Galactic system and the Supergalactic system. F. The launch of the Hubble space telescope in April 1990 changed the way that astronomers saw the universe, providing detailed digital images of constellations, planets and gas- clouds that had never been seen before. Compared to ground-based telescopes, Hubble is not particularly large. With a primary mirror diameter of 2.4 meters (94.5 inches). Hubble would be considered a medium-size telescope on the ground. However, the combination of its precision optics, state-of-the-art instrumentation, and unprecedented pointing stability and control, allows Hubble to more than make up for its lack of size, giving it a range of well over 12 billion light years. G. The telescope’s location above the Earth’s atmosphere also has a number of significant advantages over land based telescopes. The atmosphere bends light due to a phenomenon known as diffraction (this is what causes starlight to appear to twinkle and leads to the often blurred images seen through ground-based telescopes). The Hubble Space Telescope can also observe infrared light that would otherwise be blocked by the atmosphere as the wavelength (distance between successive wave crests) of ultraviolet light is shorter than that of visible light. H. Despite early setbacks – one of the reflective mirrors had to be replaced after finding that it had been ground incorrectly and did not produce the images expected – the telescope has reignited interest in space amongst the general public – a requirement, given that taxpayer funding paid for the research, deployment and maintenance of the telescope. Complete the summary below using NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS. Despite an initial flaw in a reflective mirror the Hubble space telescope is superior to telescopes on land as it can identify 8._______which would not normally reach the Earth’s surface. This is all the more impressive given that Hubble is only classified as a medium-sized telescope. Being above the atmosphere, it also has the advantages of not being affected by 9._______, which would otherwise lead to 10._______images. Your answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10. Part 5. Read the text, identify which section A–F each of the following is mentioned. Write ONE letter A–F in the corresponding numbered space provided. Each letter may be used more than once. (1.5 pts) In which extract _____ 1._____ is a point of contention amongst scientists over the effects of something highlighted? 2._____ does the writer give an insight into their personal outlook on life? 3._____ is the difficulty in proving something likened to searching for an everyday object? 4._____ does the writer examine the different ways likeness can be interpreted? 5._____ does the writer hint at the inconveniences snowflakes can cause in everyday life? 6._____ is the composition of young snow crystals differentiated in some detail? 7._____ are the range of possible forms flakes can take defined as almost never-ending? 8._____ does the writer first explain that two developed snowflakes can rarely be the same? 9._____ does the writer suggest the closer something is inspected, the less likely an outcome is? 10.____ does the writer suggest that simplification can have a positive impact on the world? A. Well, although you wouldn’t think it to glance at them, snow crystals are rather intricate. For that reason, the answer is by no means clear-cut. For instance, scientists remain unsure as to how temperature and humidity affect growth. Indeed, moving somewhat tangentially for a moment, nor are they yet certain of the wider climactic effect flakes have. For example, they know that clouds of snow crystals reflect sunlight during the day, producing a cooling affect; although at night they sort of blanket the planet, absorbing the heat it gives off, doing the reverse. So whether such clouds contribute to global warming or not is up for debate on account of these competing effects. B. As for snow crystals themselves, they undergo various stages of formation before they become fully developed snowflakes. In the developmental stages, they are more simple structures, then they later branch out and become complex. To start with, they resemble fairly plain and uniform six-sided prisms that are hard to distinguish from one another. Such underdeveloped crystals do often fall to the ground prematurely as precipitation. In this case, the probability of close likeness amongst different ones is quite high in relative terms. So, hypothetically, it’s quite possible to find two more or less the same, but, in practice, this would be like looking for a needle in a haystack – two, actually, so good luck trying to prove it. C. However, snowfall is typically comprised of crystals at a more advanced stage of development – true snowflakes, if you will – and here the odds change considerably with the likelihood of very close resem-blance dramatically reduced. This is because the ways in which fully developed crystals can arrange themselves are almost infinite. Once crystals have branched out to form large flakes, then, the chances of finding identical twins are, therefore, extremely remote. D. Another problem with this question is how you define ‘alike’. After all, to the naked eye, most flakes look more or less indistinguishable, irrespective of size or shape. Indeed, even under a microscope, more simple crystal formations are strikingly similar to one another, though the unique characteristics of fully formed snowflakes will be revealed. However, an understanding of the science of physics confirms the extreme rarity of identical twins even amongst superficially similar flakes. In other words, at a molecular level, likeness is a near impossibility, so the more closely we examine a flake and the more strictly we define the notion of likeness, the less probable it becomes to ever identify two crystals which are truly alike.
E. It is, in a way, somewhat reassuring, though, that something as seemingly simple as a snowflake which is in actuality incredibly complex, can still be uniformly beautiful in another purer, more innocent sense. For, once the flakes have made landfall and begun to amass, snow is, to a degree, just snow, and it takes on that kind of magical, fairy-tale quality that only it can evoke in so many people, but particularly the young, who have less need to worry about the logistical implications of it amassing in ever greater quantities, and, indeed, who usually welcome the closure of facilities, particularly academic ones, that is normally commensurate with such accumulations. For it is the way of the universe as a whole, is it not? Order springs from chaos, beauty is born from the most unlikely, disordered and chance set of circ*mstances. Indeed, as a self-proclaimed glass-half-full person, I like to think that we, human beings, are not all that dissimilar to snowflakes, actually. After all, each one of us is, on some level, utterly unique, and yet, remove all the complexities of life and the over-analysis, and, on another, we are all precisely the same; hopeful, flawed, loving, caring, jealous and imperfect; perfectly so. The sooner we understand that, the better for both our species and the wider world we inhabit, snow-covered or otherwise. Your answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. D. WRITING (6.0 pts) Part 2: Chart description (1.5 pts) The chart below gives information about science qualifications held by people in two countries. Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make comparisons where relevant. You should write at least 150 words.
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CHUYÊN NGUYỄN BỈNH KHIÊM - QUẢNG NAM
SESSION I: LISTENING ( 50 pts)
Part 1: You will hear part of an interview with Norman Cowley, a well-known novelist and biographer. For questions 1-5, decide whether these following statements are True (T) or False (F).(10 pts) 1. Norman Cowley feels proud of the directness of the writing about his first novel 2 Norman Cowley thought the review was written in a clever and amusing style in his second novel. 3. Norman Cowley thinks that if a writer uses people he knows well in a book, the writer will have to alter them in some way. 4. Norman Cowley believes that some modern novels don't describe the setting adequately 5. Norman Cowley likes basing a narrative on actual events about writing a biography Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
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PART 2: You win hear part of a discussion between Velm a Andrews, a lawyer, and Sergeant William Bailey, a police officer. Choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear.(10 pts) 6. How did William feel the first time he gave evidence in court? A. humiliated
B. nervous
C. furious
D. indifferent
7. Velm a suggests that police officers giving evidence should ………. A. study the evidence more carefully. B. ignore the lawyer for the defence. C. not take comments personally. D. demonstrate that they are honest and reliable. 8. Velma compares a police officer's evidence to a piece in a jigsaw puzzle because ………. A. it is unimportant unless it is part of a bigger picture. B. it may not fit in with the rest of the evidence. C. the defence lawyer will try to destroy it. D the police officer should only talk about his or her evidence. 9. William suggests that lawyers …………. A adopt a special manner in the courtroom . B. can be detached about a case.
C. might actually be close friends. D. do not take their work seriously. 10. William 's main concern is that…………. A. a criminal could get away with his or her crime. B. a court case could be confusing, C. young police officers find courts terrifying. D. police officers might argue with the lawyer. Your answers: 6.
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PART 3: You will hear an interview with a man called Jon Simmons and a woman called Clare Harries, who both work as life coaches. Choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear, using NO MORE THAN FIVE WORDS for each answer. (10 pts) 11. What made the sea water shake? ………………………………………………………………………………….. 12. What threw the pebbles into the air? ………………………………………………………………………………….. 13. What was mixed with silt to form a layer of rock? ………………………………………………………………………………….. 14. What shaped the ripples on top of the rock? ………………………………………………………………………………….. 15. How was the meteorite's impact after an hour? ………………………………………………………………………………….. Your answers: 11.
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SECTION II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (30 points) Part 1. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.(10 points)
1.
Money was short and people survived by ____ and saving.
A.scrimping
B.scavenging
C.scouring
D.scrounging
You can try reformatting your computer, but once you open that ____, you’ll probably be
2.
working on it for days. A.apple of discord
B.can of worms
C.load of cobblers
D.spot of brother
3. The luxurious office accentuated the manager’s position ____ in everything. Every detail is matched on each side. A.on the pecking pole 4.
B.at the nipping post
C.at the nipping post
D.in the pecking order
The first ____ of the ladder is important in your career.
A.step 5.
B.grade
C.push
D.rung
Anyone who lies under oath will be charged with ____ the course of justice.
A.perverting 6.
B.inverting
C.converting
D.diverting
I’m realy glad that pompous oaf lost his court case, maybe that will bring him down a ____ or two.
A.step 7.
B.notch
C.peg
D.rung
The designer refuses to glid the ____, preferring clean,simple lines for his creations.
A.lily
B.flower
C.rose
D.daisy
8. She ____ agreed to go with him to the football match although she had no interest in the game at all. A. apologetically
B. grudingly
C. shamefacedly
D. discreetly
9. The number of people traveling by air has been growing ____ . A.
by
leaps
and B. from time to time
C. slow but true
D. by hook andcrook
bounds 10.
The Red Cross is ____ an international aid organization.
A.intriguingly
Your answers
B.intrusively
C. intrinsically
D.intrepidly
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PPart 3: Fill each gap in the following sentences with one of the propositions or particles. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes (5 points) 1. ……….. your request, we can provide further details. 2. He’s about to be demoted, but that’s strictly ……….. the record. 3. As the day wore ……….., John grew more and more impatient. 4. I can’t remember the name of the hotel we stayed at……….. the top of my head. 5. I thought he was mad and backed ……….. nervously. Your answers: 1.
2.
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Part 4: Complete each space in the text with a word formed from the word in capitals (10 points) In January 2001,the (1)…………………(govern) Panel Climate Change (1PCC) issued its latest report on climate change. Climate models worked out by giant super-computers had become far more reliable since the previous report in 1995 and allowed them to (2) ………………… (praise) the earlier projections for global warming. Their conclusions were that something very serious is happening and that it cannot be a natural process. The 1990s was the hottest decade for 1,000 years and the Earth is warming faster than at any time in the last 10,000 years. According to the report, human activities are (3) . ………………… (equivocate) to blame for the temperature rise. The burning of fossil fuels releases carbon dioxide and, due to deforestation, there are fever trees to absorb this gas and recycle back into oxygen. Methane (4)…………………(concentrate) have also gone up dramatically because of increases in
rice
culture
and
(5)………………… (cattle), both of which generate methane from
(6)………………… (compose) vegetation. These greenhouses gases trap heat in the Earth's atmosphere and cause the temperature to rise. In the worst case, the resulting melting of ice-caps and glaciers would cause sea levels to rise by up to 88 cm, endangering the homes and (7)………………… (lively) of tens of millions of people who live in low-lying regions. Unfortunately, there is far greater (8)………………… (unanimous) among the world’s scientists over the issue than among politicians. As long as 1990, the IPCC recommended a 60 % reduction in carbon dioxide (9)………………… (emit), as the basic level required to return the planet’s climate to a healthy level. Governments globally failed to (10)………………… (act) these proposals. Now that the dangers have been reaffirmed by the latest report, it is high time that governments took an active interest in exploring alternative, renewable energy sources.
Your answers 1.
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SECTION III. READING COMPREHENSION (60 points) Part 1: Read the text below and decide which answer (A,B,C or D) best fits each gap ( 10pts). There’s extensive historical evidence that our ancestors may have witnessed a massive invasion of Unidentified Flying Objects (1) … on their territories. These extraterrestrials are (2) … to have come into (3) … with the ancient earthly populations and helped them (4) … numerous magnificient structures or even establish glamorous empires. However, the present-day fascination with UFO was only (5) … by the first widely (6) … American sighting in Idaho in 1947. Since that time, countless other close encounters have been reported both by highly credible witnesses such as top-class pilots and less credible ones such as ordinary civilians. Thousands of people around the world maintain having come (7) … to the visiors from outer space or to have been (8) … for a scientific study inside their flying saucers. Although most of these accounts have been (9) … as fantasy or hallucinations, there’s (10) … criticism from the public and media for ignoring the subject for too long. 1. A. surpassing
B. approximating
C. transgressing
D. encroaching
2. A. reasoned
B. alleged
C. denoted
D. inferred
3. A. touch
B. grip
C. face
D. sight
4. A. fabricate
B. plant
C. erect
D. install
5. A. discharged
B. instigated
C. constituted
D. devised
6. A. proclaimed
B. notified
C. communicated
D. conveyed
7. A. direct
B. adjacent
C. close
D. nearby
8. A. abolished
B. abducted
C. absconded
D. abbreviated
9.
B. disposed
C. repelled
D. dismissed
B. piling
C. storing
D. mounting
A. speculated
10.A. multiplying Your answers 1.
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Part 2: Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each gap. Use only one word in each gap. There is an example at the beginning (0) ( 15pts). THE GREATEST ICE-SKATING COMEDIAN EVER Werner Groebli was undoubtedly (0) one of the most famous ice-skating comedians of all time. But even to his many fans the name will mean nothing. They knew him as Frick – from the ice-skating partnership Frick and Frack – a skater with an outstanding ability to (1)….. complex skills with zany and contorted body positions that often had audiences (2)
stitches. Good (3)
to be Swiss junior skating champion, Groebli nevertheless got more (4)
of fooling around,
ridiculing, as he put (5)
, ‘the pomposity of professional skaters’.
Frick and Frack were praised for their grace, comic timing and daring acrobatics (6) than depending on falls or costumes to get laughs, the duo were celebrated for taking the traditional (7)……of figure skating and distorting them into amazing feats that left audiences enthralled. One crowd favorite involved Frack throwing Frick an invisible rope, (8)….. which point he would slowly glide forward as though (9)
pulled. (10)
was ‘the farmer’, in which the duo
would skate as if sitting on a bouncing tractor seat. Your answers 1.
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Part 3. Read the passage and choose the right answer for each question. (10 points)
READING WATS In many developed countries literacy skirts are under siege. This is true even in societies where access to primary education is universal and governments invest heavily in education. New Zealand, for example, was leading the world in literacy rates in 1970, but tumbled to thirteenth place in 2001 and then again to twenty-fourth just a few years later. Test scores in the USA also stumped ten percent during the 1990s despite the country riding an economic boom for much of the decade. In some cases these statistics reverse trends that were in motion for over a century and a haft. The steady, graduate expansion of literacy across social groups and classes was one of the greatest successes of the period of industrialization that began in the mid-1850s. This reversal of fortunes has lead to widespread contention over the pedagogy of teaching Literacy. What was once a dry and technical affair—the esoteric business of linguists and policy analysts—rapidity escalated into a series of skirmishes that were prayed out in high-visibility forums: Newspapers ran special features, columns and letters-to-the-editor on the literacy crisis; politicians
successfully ran their national campaigns on improving reading test scores; and parents had their say by joining Parent Teacher Associations (PTAs) and obi groups. The arguments around reading pouted into two different classroom methodologies: constructivism and behaviorism. The constructivist methodology grew from a holistic conception of knowledge creation that understood reading and writing to be innate, humanistic and interpretative practices that suffered when they were spliced and formalized within rigid doctrines, strict ruts and universal skill-sets. Constructivists associate words with meanings; each word might be thought of as a Chinese ideogram. Students are encouraged to learn individual words and skip over and guess words they do not understand, or learn to interpret those words by situating them within the lexical infrastructure of the sentence and the story's wider narrative. These practices materialize as learning processes centered on guided group reading and independent reading of high-quantity, culturally diverse literature or textual composition that emphasizes pup[is conveying their own thoughts and feelings for rear purposes such as letters to pen pats or journal entries. Behaviorism sees the pedagogy cat process in a tests dialectical fashion—words are initially taught not toxically, as vehicles to convey meaning, but rather sub-rexicatty, as a combination of features that can be separated and learn in a schematic process. The behaviorist approach does not focus on words at all in the early stages of learning. Rather, it is centered on a universally applicable method of teaching students to isolate graphemes and phonemes with the intention that students will eventually learn to synthesize these individual parts and make sense of spoken words textually. In this way, individual components are not equated with the strokes of a brush on a Chinese ideogram, but rather as the focal pieces of interpretation—as in, for example, learning to read musical notations or Morse code. Because of its emphasis on universal rules, behaviorism is much more conducive to format examination and the consolidation of results across regions and countries. The ability to master language is considered to rest in the acquisition of a set of skills that exist independently of individuals. Classroom learning is therefore based upon the transmission of knowledge from tutor to student, rather than seen as an internalized process that erupts within the students themselves. So who comes out on top? It is not easy to say. Champions of behaviorism have claimed victory because constructivist learning took over in the late 1980s, just before test scores on literacy began sinking across the West. Constructivists, however, can make the valid claim that the behaviorist approach has a heavy methodological bias towards testing and examination, and that test results do not represent the ability of individuals to use and interpret language freely and creatively. Furthermore, different socio-economic groups respond in different ways to each method. Those from wealthier families tend to do well regardless of the method, but thrive on the constructivist approach imp emended in the 1990s. Children from poorer families, however, are better served by behaviorism. These outcomes have ramped up levels of socio-economic based educational disparities in educational systems that have pushed the constructivist method.
It is unlikely that either constructivism or behaviorism will be permanently sidelined from curricula in the near future. Most teachers find it easier to incorporate aspects of each approach. Constructivism may ultimately hold the trump card because of its proven success with pupils who come from families where they are introduced to reading and writing in various forms from a young age—this process of 'living and (earning' and immersing oneself in language is a sound principle. In a world rife with social inequities, households with illiterate parents and a scarcity of funding for education, however, the behaviorist approach may have the upper hand in teaching children to access the basic skills of literacy quickly and efficiently, even if some linguistic creativity is crushed in the process. 1. Which of the following topics is the passage primarily concerned with? A. The rise and fall of literacy in countries around the world B. Reasons why language teaching has been on firm ground C. Main features of two languages teaching approaches D. Best classroom methodologies in literacy approaches 2. Which describes one attitude towards a teaching method mentioned in the text? A. Too many rules and regulations can hinder natural knowledge mastery B. Dependence on learning assistants is no longer praiseworthy now C. Understanding deserves much more emphasis that putting knowledge to use D. Universal rules must be must be appreciated if individual interpretation of ideas is to be achieved 3. By ‘was a dry and technical affair’, the writer means that: A. Literacy education was less flexible and cultural than it is B. There was one time when language teaching was very technological C. Nobody but linguistics and politicians found literacy was a matter of interest D. Literacy teaching methods used to be entitled to specialists only 4. Which is one feature of constructivism? A. People are naturally inclined to develop language abilities B. Students learn best by working on their own C. It is vital that a disciplined and regulated approach is used D. Everyone learns to read and write in a similar manner 5. Which is one feature of behaviorism? A. There is hardly a common set of conventions B. Meaning is created by connecting word fragments C. Linguistic capacities are built into people D. Self-study is crucial in acquiring language knowledge 6. Which is NOT one feature of constructivism? A. Context can provide helpful cues to understand words B. Language is best learned as a single, organic process
C. Practical means are used to encourage individual and self-expression D. It is crucial that students understand every words they encounter 7. The phrase ‘hold the trump card’ mostly means: A. Achieve dominance B. Be described in documents C. Maintain its originality D. Overcome challenges 8. Which is NOT one feature of behaviorism? A. Students often learn by receiving information from teachers B. The whole word is less important than its parts C. It is difficult to judge how well students are doing collectively D. Test results, rather than real abilities, are more likely to be achieved 9. What is one disadvantage of behaviorism teaching and learning? A. It is only suitable to children with a good financial background B. It may discourage learners’ creative abilities in language acquisition C. It seems to overemphasize the needs for tests and examinations D. It lessens the possibility of equality in education between social classes 10. Which best summarizes the writer’s general conclusion? A. Constructivism is better, while behaviorism leads to negative social effects B. Ideally, constructivism would be used, but behaviorism is more pragmatic C. Neither is particular useful, and there needs to be new alternative D. Each method complements the other, and their application should be integrated Your answers 1.
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Part 4: You are going to read an article. Read the passage and answer the questions (10pts).
HELIUM’S FUTURE UP IN THE AIR A In recent years we have all been exposed to dire media reports concerning the impending demise of global coal and oil reserves, but the depletion of another key non renewable resource continues without receiving much press at all. Helium – an inert, odourless, monatomic element known to lay people as the substance that makes balloons float and voices squeak when inhaled – could
be gone from this planet within a generation. B Helium itself is not rare; there is actually a plentiful supply of it in the cosmos. In fact, 24 per cent of our galaxy’s elemental mass consists of helium, which makes it the second most abundant element in our universe. Because of its lightness, however, most helium vanished from our own planet many years ago. Consequently, only a miniscule proportion – 0.00052%, to be exact – remains in earth’s atmosphere. Helium is the byproduct of millennia of radioactive decay from the elements thorium and uranium. The helium is mostly trapped in subterranean natural gas bunkers and commercially extracted through a method known as fractional distillation. C The loss of helium on Earth would affect society greatly. Defying the perception of it as a novelty substance for parties and gimmicks, the element actually has many vital applications in society. Probably the most well known commercial usage is in airships and blimps (non-flammable helium replaced hydrogen as the lifting gas du jour after the Hindenburg catastrophe in 1932, during which an airship burst into flames and crashed to the ground killing some passengers and crew). But helium is also instrumental in deep-sea diving, where it is blended with nitrogen to mitigate the dangers of inhaling ordinary air under high pressure; as a cleaning agent for rocket engines; and, in its most prevalent use, as a coolant for superconducting magnets in hospital MRI (magnetic resonance imaging) scanners. D The possibility of losing helium forever poses the threat of a real crisis because its unique qualities are extraordinarily difficult, if not impossible to duplicate (certainly, no biosynthetic ersatz product is close to approaching the point of feasibility for helium, even as similar developments continue apace for oil and coal). Helium is even cheerfully derided as a “loner” element since it does not adhere to other molecules like its cousin, hydrogen. According to Dr. Lee Sobotka, helium is the “most noble of gases, meaning it’s very stable and non-reactive for the most part … It has a closed electronic configuration, a very tightly bound atom. It is this coveting of its own electrons that prevents combination with other elements’. Another important attribute is helium’s unique boiling point, which is lower than that for any other element. The worsening global shortage could render millions of dollars of high-value, life-saving equipment totally useless. The dwindling supplies have already resulted in the postponement of research and development projects in physics laboratories and manufacturing plants around the world. There is an enormous supply and demand imbalance partly brought about by the expansion of high-tech manufacturing in Asia. E The source of the problem is the Helium Privatisation Act (HPA), an American law passed in 1996 that requires the U.S. National Helium Reserve to liquidate its helium assets by 2015 regardless of the market price. Although intended to settle the original cost of the reserve by a U.S. Congress ignorant of its ramifications, the result of this fire sale is that global helium prices are so artificially deflated that few can be bothered recycling the substance or using it judiciously. Deflated values also mean that natural gas extractors see no reason to capture helium. Much is lost in the process of extraction. As Sobotka notes: "[t]he government had the good vision to store helium, and the question now is: Will the
corporations have the vision to capture it when extracting natural gas, and consumers the wisdom to recycle? This takes long-term vision because present market forces are not sufficient to compel prudent practice”. For Nobel-prize laureate Robert Richardson, the U.S. government must be prevailed upon to repeal its privatisation policy as the country supplies over 80 per cent of global helium, mostly from the National Helium Reserve. For Richardson, a twenty- to fifty-fold increase in prices would provide incentives to recycle. F A number of steps need to be taken in order to avert a costly predicament in the coming decades. Firstly, all existing supplies of helium ought to be conserved and released only by permit, with medical uses receiving precedence over other commercial or recreational demands. Secondly, conservation should be obligatory and enforced by a regulatory agency. At the moment some users, such as hospitals, tend to recycle diligently while others, such as NASA, squander massive amounts of helium. Lastly, research into alternatives to helium must begin in earnest. Passage 4 has six paragraphs, A–F. Which paragraph contains the following information? Write the correct letter, A–F 1. A use for helium which makes an activity safer 2. The possibility of creating an alternative to helium 3. A term which describes the process of how helium is taken out of the ground 4. A reason why users of helium do not make efforts to conserve it 5. A contrast between helium’s chemical properties and how non-scientists think about it Your answers: 1.
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Complete the summary below. Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer. Sobotka argues that big business and users of helium need to help look after helium stocks because 6……………….. will not be encouraged through buying and selling alone. Richardson believes that the 7……………….. needs to be withdrawn, as the U.S. provides most of the world’s helium. He argues that higher costs would mean people have 8……………….. to use the resource many times over. People should need a 9……………….. to access helium that we still have. Furthermore, a 10 ……………….. should ensure that helium is used carefully. Your answers:
6.
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8.
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Part 5. You are going to read an article about electronic books and reading. Choose from the sections (A - D). The sections may be chosen more than once (15 pts) . In which section does the writer mention 1. An example of superseded technology that still has a certain appeal? ____ 2. An analogy used to emphasise how seriously an idea is taken? ____ 3. An anxiety she shares with other like-minded people? ____ 4. A development that questions our assumptions about what reading actually entails? ____ 5. The willingness of writers to experiment with new ideas? ____ 6. The idea that books have always been part of an ongoing interactive process? ____ 7. A seeming contradiction in her own attitudes? ____ 8. A belief that the fundamental nature of reading will change? ____ 9. Finding pleasure in another readers' reactions to a book? ____ 10. A view that a prediction is somewhat exaggerated? ____ THE BOOK IS DEAD - LONG LIVE THE BOOK (A)
A lot of ink has been spilled on the supposed demise of the printed word. Ebooks are outselling
paper books. Newspapers are dying. To quote one expert: 'The days of the codex as the primary carrier of information are almost over.' This has inspired a lot of hand-wringing from publishers, librarians, archivists - and me, a writer and lifelong bibliophile who grew up surrounded by paper books. I've been blogging since high school, I'm addicted to my smartphone and, in theory, I should be on board with the digital revolution - but when people mourn the loss of paper books, I sympathise. Are printed books really going the way of the dodo? And what would we lose if they did? Some commentators think the rumours of the printed world's imminent demise have been rather overstated. Printed books will live on as art objects and collector's items, they argue, rather in the way of vinyl records. People may start buying all their beach novels and periodicals in ebook formats and curating their physical bookshelves more carefully. It is not about the medium, they say, it is about people. As long as there are those who care about books and don't know why, there will be books. It's that simple.
(B) Meanwhile artists are blending print with technology. Between Page and Screen by Amaranth Borsuk and Brad Bouse is a paper book that can be read only on a computer. Instead of words, every page has a geometric pattern. If you hold so a printed page up to a webcam, while visiting the book's related website, your screen displays the text of the story streaming, spinning and leaping off the page. Printed books may need to become more multi-faceted. incorporating video, music and interactivity. A group at the MIT Media Lab already builds electronic pop-up books with glowing LEDs that brighten and dim as you pull paper tabs. and authors have been pushing the boundaries with 'augmented reality' books for years. The lines between print and digital books are blurring,and interesting things are happening at the interface. (C) Beyond the page, ebooks may someday transform how we read. We are used to being alone with our thoughts inside a book but what if we could invite friends or favourite authors to join in? A web tool called SocialBookBook offers a way to make the experience of reading more collaborative. Readers highlight and comment on text, and can see and respond to comments that others have left in the same book. 'When you put text into a dynamic network, a book becomes a place where readers and sometimes authors can congregate in the margin,' said Bob Stein, founder of the Institute for the Future of the Book. a think tank in New York. Stein showed how a high-school class is using SocialBook to read and discuss Don Quixote, how an author could use it to connect with readers. and how he and his collaborators have started using it instead of email. Readers can 100 open their books to anyone they want, from close friends to intellectual heroes. 'For us, SocialBook is not a pizza topping. It's not an add-on,' Stein says. 'It's the foundational cornerstone of reading and writing going forth into the future. (D)
The tools might be new, but the goal of SocialBook is hardly radical. Books have found ways
to be nodes of human connection ever since their inception. That's why reading a dog-eared volume painstakingly annotated with thoughts and impressions is unfailingly delightful - akin to making a new like-minded acquaintance. The MIT Rare i20 Books collection has kept a copy of John Stuart Mill's 1848 book Principles of Political Economy, not for its content but for the lines and lines of tiny comments a passionate but unknown user scrawled in the margins. Maybe ebooks are taking us where print was trying to go all along. Your answers 1.
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SESSION IV: WRITING (60 pts) Part 2: The table below gives information about population in Australia and Malaysia in 1980 and 2002. Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make comparison where relevant. You should write at least 150 words ( 15pts).
14.
CHUYÊN LÊ THÁNH TÔNG - QUẢNG NAM
A. LISTENING (50 points): Part 1: You will hear part of an interview in which a jazz musician and radio presenter called Harry Bulford is talking about his life and work. For questions 1-5, choose the answer ( A, B, C, or D) which fits best according to what you hear. (10pts) 1. What first attracted Harry to jazz? A. an understanding of its emotion appeal C. his brother’s enthusiasm for it
B. being told that he had a talent for it
D. seeing it performed well
2. Harry says he went to music college because he wanted to _______. A. become a composer
B. have a break from jazz
C. fulfill his father’s expectations
D. show his contempt for conformity
3. In his response to the question about whether he’s ‘Britain’s top trumpeter’, Harry reveals that he is _______. A. proud to be praised so highly B. keen to improve his skills even further C. embarrassed on behalf of other players D. resigned to being unknown internationally 4. For Harry, one disadvantage of being a professional performer is that _______. A. his social circle tends to be limited B. he’s been unable to protect his personal privacy C. he’s had problems caused by a fluctuating income D. his frequent absences from home have affected his family life 5. Harry thinks he was asked to present his current programme because ______. A. no one else was available at the time B. the producer was a former schoolfriend C. he was considered to have the right approach D. his previous programme had made him popular Your answers 1.
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Part 2: You will hear a speaker discussing a recent report on hypnotism. Write T (for TRUE) or F (for FALSE) in the numbered boxes. (10pts) 1. The report outlines the use of hypnosis by historians. 2. Hypnosis can be used in surgery. 3. Under hypnosis people can be made to imitate animals. 4. Under hypnosis, people do things they wouldn’t normally do. 5. At present, private clubs do not have to follow government rules on hypnosis. Your answers 1.
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Part 3: You are going to hear a lecture on the cork forests of southern Spain and Portugal. Write NO MORE THAN SIX WORDS for each answer. (10pts) 1. What do cork trees need to grow well? ...................................................................................................... 2. How can healthy growth of the cork tree be maintained? ...................................................................................................... 3.What
do
farmers
do
to
maintain
biodiversity
in
cork-growing
areas?
...................................................................................................... 4. What has The Cork Growers’Association agreed to use contaminated cork for? ...................................................................................................... 5. What is the consequence of decline in the cork forests? ...................................................................................................... B. LEXICO AND GRAMMAR (30 pts) Part 1: Choose the word or phrase that best completes each of the following sentences. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.(10pts) 1. Little did I imagine The Amazing Race would entail long-winded journeys and ups and downs _________. A. aplenty
B. inexhaustibly
C. profusely D. superabundant
2. It stands to reason that a touch of humour and optimism can work _________ . A. on all cylinders B. spectacles C. wonders
D. your finger to the bones
3. That Mary is an _________ liar: you must take what she says with a small grain of salt. A. incorrigible
B. incurable
C. irredeemable
D. irremediable
4. As the sky darkened it soon became obvious that a violent thunderstorm was _______. A. imminent
B. instantaneous
C. immediate
D. eminent
5. In some countries, confrontation between police and strikers on ________ has become a feature of life in the eighties. A. dole queues
B. picket lines
C. back benches D. assembly lines
6. They were _________ tempted to relieve the shopkeeper of his three juiciest-looking apples. A. badly
B. sorely
C. powerfully
D. utterly
7. His appearance at the reception with the late Mayor’s widow caused something of a __________. A. confusion
B. rumour
C. wonder
D. stir
8. A boycott of other countries’ sporting events appears a politically more expedient form of protest than trade _________. A. treaties
B. actions
C. blocks
D. sanctions
9. The low, unbroken __________ of the machine next door gradually bored its way into his brain. A. din
B. thud
C. blare
D. hum
10. Her close personal friends never ________ in their belief in her; whatever was written in the press. A. derided
B. taunted
C. faltered
D. reneged
Your answers 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
Part 3: Complete each of the following sentences with a suitable preposition or particle. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (5pts) 1. The lecture hall gradually emptied as Professor Jackson rambled _____ . 2. The schoolboy winced ______ the sight of the cane in the headmaster’s hand. 3. We have been really busy, but things are starting to slacken _______now. 4. This is the time of the year when stores mark _____ their prices, so you can get good deals. 5. Jane is out in the garden mulling ______ a problem to do with work. Your answers 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Part 4: Write the correct form of each bracketed word in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10pts) Calendar 2018 was an eventful year and numerous moving variables led to (1. HEIGHT) ________ volatility in the stock market. Markets across the globe came under pressure as growth worries intensified following trade war tensions and now a US government (2.SHUT)________. Concerns over the same have been voiced by the many central bankers across the globe and we hope these may lead to lower pace of tightening or a pause by the central banks to support growth in their (3. RESPECT) ________ economies. This, in turn, will support stock markets. On the (4. FLIP) ________ flipside, the Fed has already planned two more rate hikes instead of three, and those would dry up some liquidity in the emerging markets like India.
Back home, the silver lining is that the macro (5. METER) ___parameters_____ such as oil prices, bond yields and liquidity, which ruined market sentiments in the 2018, now appear to have turned favourable. From the peak of $80 a barrel hit in early October, oil prices are now hovering at around $50. A drop in Iran’s oil production/exports from May 2019, when US will remove its (6. EXEMPT) ________ for eight countries still importing oil from Iran, may restrict supplies and push up crude oil prices. The Indian stock market saw a net (7. FLOW) ________ of $4.58 billion in 2018, the steepest selloff in a decade. Yet, India did well compared with other emerging markets, and the reason behind it was the large flows coming through domestic institutions. As India grows, we will continue to see the clout of domestic (8. INVEST) ________ grow, as that of foreign players. Strong consumer loan growth and rising real income will boost consumer (9.DISCRETION ) ________ spends, whereas a likely turn in private capex (capital expenditure) cycle and strong public capex should will continue to boost the overall economy and corporate (10. EARN) ________ . Your answers 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
C. READING (50 points) Part 1. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap. Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points) It only (1) _________ the completion of the reconstruction of the human genetic map for a whole host of hereditary diseases to be eradicated. Originally, it was forecast that the venture would take until the beginning of the 21st century to be (2) _________. At present, it is clear that the task can be finished much earlier. Hundreds of scholars have gone to extremes to help (3) _________ the mystery of the human genetic structure with an ardent hope for (4) _________ mankind from disorders such as cancer, cystic fibrosis or arthritis. The progress in this incredible undertaking is (5) _________ by an accurate interpretation of the information involved in the chromosomes forming the trillions of the cells in the human body. Locating and characterizing every single gene may sound an implausible assignment, but very considerable (6) _________ has already been made. What we know by now is that the hereditary code is assembled in DNA, some parts of which may be diseased and (7) _________ to the uncontrollable transmission of the damaged code from parents to their children. Whereas work at the completion of the human genome may last for a few years more, notions like gene therapy or genetic engineering don’t (8) _________ much surprise any longer. Their potential application has already been (9) _________ in the effective struggle against many viruses or in the
genetic treatment of blood disorders. The hopes, are, then that hundreds of maladies that humanity is (10) _________ with at present might eventually cease to exist in the not too distant future. 1. A. expects B. anticipates C. requires 2. A. dismantled
D. remains
B. discharged C. accomplished
3. A. dissolve B. interrogate C. respond
D. exterminated
D. unravel
4. A. liberating
B. insulating
C. surviving
D. averting
5. A. dependent
B. reliant
C. qualified
D. conditioned
6. A. headline
B. headway
C. heading
D. headship
7. A. amiable B. conceivable
C. conducive D. evocative
8. A. evoke
B. institute
C. discharge
D. encourage
9. A. examined
B. inquired
C. corroborated
D. accounted
10. A. aggravated
B. plagued
C. persecuted D. teased
Your answer 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
Part 2. Read the following text and fill in the blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points) THE GALAPAGOS Visitors to the Galapagos Islands could be forgiven for asking all the fuss is (1) _________. Disasters workers and ecologists (2) _________ outnumber tourists, but there are few visible signs of a disaster. A wrecked oil tanker, stranded on rocks a mile away, is a blot on the tropical landscape. Simply keeping catastrophe at (3)_________ was never to satisfy an environmental group that wants the Galapagos Islands to remain as they were when Darwin visited in 1839, especially since most of the credit for the narrow escape is thanks to the winds and currents that carried the spill (4) _________ to the sea. About a third of the island’s 600 or more native plant species are found only there. (5)_________ the 57 species of reptiles, land birds and mammals, more than 80 percent are found nowhere else. Among these is the world’s largest marine lizard, the only species of penguin found in the tropics, a cormorant that has lived so long without predators that it has lost the (6)_________ to fly, and many rare species of tortoise. All are uniquely vulnerable, hence the unique concern. The Galapagos Islands were (7)_________ a national park in 1959, and developed an apparently model ecotourism industry- groups are sent (8) _________ hopping to designated sites and always with a guide. The local conservationists appeared confident at the helm, and the international environmental groups are pleased to have one (9) _________ place to worry about- until the rusting ship ran (10) _________, and leaked its cargo of oil.
Your answers 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
Part 3: Read the passage and choose the best option A, B, C, or D to answer the questions. (10 pts) COMMUNICATING WITH THE FUTURE In the 1980s the United States Department of Energy was looking for suitable sites to bury radioactive waste material generated by its nuclear energy programs. The government was considering burying the dangerous wastes in deep underground chambers in remote desert areas. The problem, however, was that nuclear waste remains highly radioactive for thousands of years. The commission entrusted with tackling the problem of waste disposal was aware that the dangers posed by radioactive emissions must be communicated to our descendants of at least 10,000 years hence. So the task became one of finding a way to tell future societies about the risk posed by these deadly deposits. Of course, human society in the distant future may be well aware of the hazards of radiation. Technological advances may one day provide the solutions to this dilemma. But the belief in constant technological advancement is based on our perceptions of advances made throughout history and prehistory. We cannot be sure that society won’t have slipped backward into an age of barbarism due to any of several catastrophic events, whether the result of nature such as the onset of a new ice age or perhaps mankind’s failure to solve the scourges of war and pollution. In the event of global catastrophe, it is quite possible that humans of the distant future will be on the far side of a broken link of communication and technological understanding. The problem then becomes how to inform our descendants that they must avoid areas of potential radioactive seepage given that they may not understand any currently existing language and may have no historical or cultural memory. So, any message indicated to future reception and decipherment must be as universally understandable as possible. It was soon realized by the specialists assigned the task of devising the communication system that material in which the message was written might not physically endure the great lengths of time demanded. The second law of thermodynamics shows that all material disintegrates over time. Even computers that might carry the message cannot be expected to endure long enough. Besides, electricity supplies might not be available in 300 generations. Other media storage methods were considered and rejected for similar reasons. The task force under the linguist Thomas Sebeok finally agreed that no foolproof way would be found to send a message across so many generations and have it survive physically and be decipherable by a people with few cultural similarities to us. Given this restriction, Sebeok suggested the only possible solution was the formation of a committee of guardians of knowledge. Its task would be to dedicate itself to maintaining and passing the knowledge of the whereabouts and dangers of the nuclear waste deposits.
This so-called atomic priesthood would be entrusted with keeping knowledge of this tradition alive through millennia and developing the tradition into a kind of mythical taboo forbidding people to tamper in a way with the nuclear waste sites. Only the initiated atomic priesthood of experts would have the scientific knowledge to fully understand the danger. Those outside the priesthood would be kept away by a combination of rituals and legends designed to warn off intruders. This proposal has been criticized because of the possibility of a break in continuity of the original message. Furthermore, there is no guarantee that any warning or sanction passed on for millennia would be obeyed, nor that it could survive with its original meaning intact. To counterbalance this possibility, Sebeok’s group proposed a “relay system” in which information is passed on over relatively short periods of time, just three generations ahead. The message then to be renewed and redesigned if necessary for the following three generations and so on over the required time span. In this way information could be relayed into the future and avoid the possibility of physical degradation. A second defect is more difficult to dismiss, however. This is the problem of social exclusiveness brought about through possession of vital knowledge. Critics point out that the atomic priesthood could use its secret knowledge to control those who are scientifically ignorant. The establishment of such an association of insiders holding powerful knowledge not available except in mythic form to nonmembers would be a dangerous precedent for future social developments. 1. The word "chambers" in the passage is closest in meaning to ________ . A. partitions
B. openings
C. cavities
D. fissures
2 . What problem faced the commission assigned to deal with the burial of nuclear waste A. reduce the radioactive life of nuclear waste materials B. How to form a committee that could adequately express various nuclear risks C. How to notify future generations of the risks of nuclear contamination D. How to choose burial sites so as to minimize dangers to people. 3. In paragraph 2, the author explains the possible circ*mstances of future societies________ . A. to warn about the possible natural catastrophe B. to question the value of advances C. to highlight humankind's inability to resolve problems D. to demonstrate the reason nuclear hazards must be communicated 4. The word "scourges" in the passage is closest in meaning to ________ . A. pressures
B. afflictions
C. worries
D. annoyances
5. In paragraph 4, the author mentions the second law of thermodynamics __________ . A. to support the view that nuclear waste will disperse with time B. to show that knowledge can be sustained over millennia C. to give the basic scientific reason behind the breakdown of material objects
How
to
D. to contrast the potential life span of knowledge with that of material objects 6. The word "Its" in the passage refers to _________ . A. knowledge
B. committee
C. solution
D. guardians
7. In paragraph 5, why is the proposed committee of guardians referred to as the "atomic priesthood"? A. Because they would be an exclusive group with knowledge about nuclear waste sites. B. Because they would use rituals and legends to maintain their exclusiveness C. Because they would be an exclusive religious order D. Because they would develop mythical taboos surrounding their traditions 8. According to the author, why did the task force under Sebeok propose a relay system for passing on information? A. To show that Sebeok 's ideas created more problems than they solved B. To support the belief that breaks in communication are inevitable over time C. To contrast Sebeok's ideas with those proposed by his main critics D. To compensate for the fact that meaning will not stable over long periods of time 9. According to paragraph 7, the second defect of the atomic priesthood proposal is that it could lead to _________ . A. the nonmembers turning knowledge into dangerous mythical forms B. the possible misuse of exclusive knowledge C. the establishment of a scientifically ignorant society D. the priesthood's criticism of points concerning vital knowledge 10. All of the following are mentioned in the passage as difficulties in devising a communication system with the future EXCEPT __________. A. the failure to maintain communication link B. the loss of knowledge about today's civilization C. the inability of materials to endure over time D. the exclusiveness of priesthood Your answers 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
Part 3. Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each of the following questions. Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points) WHERE HAVE ALL OUR BIRDS GONE? People have been listening to skylarks singing in Britain for 10,000 years. But now they, and many other much loved species, are vanishing fast. David Adam finds out why. A family of Starlings has chosen a post box for the third year running in an Essex seaside town to raise their young brood.
A. The B1042 that winds from the Bedfordshire town of Sandy towards the village of Potton is a difficult road to cross. Fast and twisty, there are several blind bends where pedestrians must take their lives into their hands. That is trickier than it sounds, for most pedestrians who cross the B1042 already have a pair of binoculars in their hands. The road separates the grand headquarters of the RSPB, home to hundreds of birdwatchers, from some unkept fields, home to hundreds of watchable birds – hence the regular skips across the tarmac. The skips, though, are now less regular for many RSPB staff, for the star attraction of the neighbouring fields has flown. Until a year ago, a clutch of woodlark nested there, one of Britain's rarest birds with just 1,000 or so thought to remain. Then their home was ploughed up and replaced with a giant field of swaying hemp plants. The woodlark have not been seen since. B. It is not just the professional birdwatchers of the RSPB who have seen their local landscape transformed. Across Britain, and with little fanfare, the face of the countryside has subtly changed in recent years. Farm fields that stood idle for years under EU schemes to prevent overproduction, such as the one across the road from the RSPB, have been conscripted back into active service. The uncultivated land, previously a haven for wildlife, has been ploughed, and farmers have planted crops such as wheat and barley, with occasional hemp for use in paper and textiles. C. As a result, the amount of land available for birds such as the woodlark has halved in the last two years. Without efforts to stem this loss of habitat, conservation experts warn that the countryside of the future could look and sound very different. Starved of insects in the spring and seeds through the winter, the metallic-sounding corn bunting and plump grey partridge, formerly one of the most common birds on UK shores, are on the brink. And the skylark, whose twittering has provided the soundtrack to millions of countryside walks and inspired Percy Bysshe Shelley, in Ode to a Skylark, to praise its "profuse strains of unpremeditated art", is struggling and could soon vanish from many areas. Numbers fell 53% from 1970 to 2006. "This is not just about birdwatchers. These birds are part of our common heritage," says Gareth Morgan, head of agriculture policy at the RSPB. D. Government figures show that populations of 19 bird species that rely on farmland have halved since serious counting started in the 1970s – a decline conservationists blame on intensive farming methods, with insecticide and herbicide sprayed on to monoculture fields shorn of vibrant hedges. The unmistakable yellowhammer, which likes to sing while perched as a dash of colour on hedges and bushes, has steadily disappeared with the hedges and bushes. And a startling 80% drop across England in 40 years has diluted the shifting Rorschach blots painted on the dusk sky by massed flocks of starling – though urban changes are blamed for this too. E. Farmland birds may sound a niche problem, and you may think that the rest of the countryside is doing OK, but for most people, farmland is the British countryside. About 75% of Britain is farmed, and about half of that is arable fields. Take a train between two UK towns, particularly in eastern counties, and almost all of the countryside you see is farmland.
F. As Simon Gillings of the British Trust for Ornithology (BTO) puts it: "For most people, farmland is the countryside and farmland birds are the birds they see." If birds are struggling, then it is a fair bet that other wildlife is too. "Birds are indicative of other things," Gillings says. "If birds are declining then what does that say about the plants and insects they rely on? It's all linked together." Questions 1- 6 The Reading Passage has six paragraphs, A-F. Choose the correct heading for each paragraph from the list of headings. Write the correct number i-ix in boxes 56-61. List of Headings i. Not only birds suffer ii. Vanishing of habitats gives rise to the drop in bird species. iii. Cultivating fame fields is profitable for farmers iv. A niche and minor problem v. Who should be blamed? vi. Woodlark and other birds are on the brink vii. Hedges and bushes are blamed for the reduction viii. The rapid disappearance of bird species in Britain ix. The countryside is the farmland x. A major change in local landscape – more land is cultivated. xi. Farmland is taking an insignificant share. Question 1: Paragraph A __________ Question 2: Paragraph B __________ Question 3: Paragraph C __________ Question 4: Paragraph D __________ Question 5: Paragraph E __________ Question 6: Paragraph F __________ Questions 7-10 Do the following statements agree with the information given in the READING PASSAGE ?. In boxes 7-10 on your answer sheet, write YES
if the statement agrees with the information
NO
if the statement contradicts with the information
NOT GIVEN
if there is no information on this
Question 7: The RSPB is a very famous international organisation in birds conservation. Question 8: In EU countries farm fields are left uncultivated in order to increase their fertility. Question 9: The loss of habitats means a more demanding survival for many bird species. Question 10: In the 1970s governments only counted 19 bird species that depended on farmland.
Your answers 7.
8.
9.
10.
Part 5: You are going to read an article about the present-day importance of the moon landings. Choose from the sections (A-E). The sections may be chosen more than once. Mark your answer on the separate sheet. (10 points) LIVING IN THE MOON’S SHADOW More than forty years on, why the moon landings are still having an impact today A On December 19, 1972, a sonic boom above the South Pacific signaled the completion of the Apollo program, as a tiny space capsule burst back through the blue sky. On board were the last three astronauts to visit the moon. The space race has changed the course of human history far more profoundly than anyone could have predicted in 1961, when a new president challenged America to land a man on the moon and return him safely to the Earth. No one present knew how to make it happen. But that wasn't going to stop them rising to President Kennedy’s date. B As progress in human space flight sped up through the 1960s, Ph.D. intake at American universities, particularly in the field of Physics, increased almost threefold. Apollo was making America cleverer. Within weeks of Kennedy’s speech, the Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT) was asked to work out the small matter of helping astronauts making a soft landing on a moving larger hurtling through space 250,000 miles from Earth. To assist them in this, a small lightweight computer was proposed by MIT. In the early 60s, computers often took up entire rooms. To miniaturize one enough to pack it into a modestly-sized craft, they’d need new technology, so they turned to a brand new arrival on the technology scene: the integrated circuit C Only a few companies were experimenting with these new micro-electronic components at the time; keen to help them perfect the performance of these novel miniature circuits, NASA ordered one million of them. The agency really only needed a few hundred, but aware that they would be betting the lives of their astronauts on them, they were keen to make sure the manufacturers could make them as reliable as possible. Such a financial kickstart to a fledgling industry, coupled with another gift of Apollo — inspiration — would prove to be powerful drivers for technological change in the decades that followed. Those graduating across the world in the '70s and '80s had watched Apollo's engineers dream the impossible and then build it. As an act of human ingenuity, Applo made them giddy, intoxicated on admiration and inspiration. As William Bainbridge put it in his book “The Spaceflight Revolution’, Apollo was a grand attempt to reach beyond the world of mundane life and transcend the ordinary limits of human existence life through accomplishment of the miraculous - a story of engineers who tried to reach the heavens'
D Many of the people who have built the new tools of the Internet and the technological infrastructure that underpins it cite Apollo as their motivator. Professor Sir Martin Sweeting founded the word-renowned small satellite company SSTL, which revolutionized the industry. ‘Apollo started me on this whole pathway of getting involved in space.' says Sweeting. The idea of being able to participate in something as exciting as a lunar landing, it stimulated an ambition, the dream of building my own satellite with my friends.’ The idea of a small private enterprise launching a satellite was considered pretty crazy at the time, he points out. ‘After building the first one, I had a lot of advice to go out and get a proper job. I’m sure that without Apollo I would have followed a more conventional career.' E Former NASA flight director Glynn Lunney witnessed the trickle-down straight from Apollo to the rest of us. 'We were asking people to do things 10 or 20 years ahead of when they would otherwise have done them. And they knew it. They stepped up to it and succeeded. Today’s cellphones, wireless equipment, tablet computers and so on are a result of the fact that the country did this high-tech thing and made this large portfolio of technologies available.' Today's, population, over half of whom weren't born when those last astronauts returned from the moon, use these inventions to communicate will each other freely and without a thought for geographical and cultural differences. The gifts of Apollo continue to ripple down the decades, and still have the power to unite and inspire us. In which section are the following mentioned? Statements
Answer
A tribute to the ambitions of the space programme
1.
the accelerated development of technology
2.
A lack of encouragement to continue with a project
3.
various factors which made a task particularly challenging
4.
an individual example of the inspiring effects of Apollo
5.
an event marking the end of an era
6.
A spirited response to a seemingly impossible provocation
7.
the effects of the space programme on attitudes to sharing information
8.
A radical alteration of existing technology
9.
an influential combination of factors affecting the space programme
10.
Your answers 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
PART IV: WRITING (60 pts) Part 2. Graph writing (15 points) The chart and table below give information about population figures in Japan. Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features and make comparisons
Japan’s population: past, present and future trends.
14.
CHUYÊN LÊ QUÝ ĐÔN - BÌNH ĐỊNH
LISTENING (50 pts) Part 1.For questions from 1-5, listen to an interview with someone who reviews hotels and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) according to what you hear. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes (10 pts) 1. What does Paddy say about some readers of her column? A. They suspect that she enjoys criticizing hotels. B. Her attitude to hotels has changed because of their response. C. Her comments match their experiences of hotels. D. They prefer reading about hotels they would not want to visit. 2. What does Paddy say about some hotel-keepers? A. They sometimes have to force themselves to have a sense of humour. B. They would be more suited to a different profession. C. They expect to receive negative comment about their hotels. D. They are surprised that they become friends of hers. 3. Paddy says that some hotel-keepers she has contacted about the book have A. realized that she does not really have an assistant called Emily. B. corrected inaccuracies that were in her review of their hotels. C. responded favorably despite criticisms she had made. D. made her wonder whether her reviews of their hotels were unfair.
4. People say the one hotel-keeper she spoke to told her that A. other people are unlikely to be treated in the same way in hotels as she is. B. he was unwilling to discuss some of the comments in her review. C. her reviews did not have as much influence as she believed. D. he no longer wanted his hotel to appear in the book. 5. The same owner also told her that A. he had passed information about her to other hotels. B. he resented her description of him in her review. C. he did not understand why she wanted to put his hotel in her book. D. there was nothing distinctive about her physical appearance. Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Part 2.You will hear a dialogue about property development. For questions 1-5, decide whether the following statements are True (T) or False (F). (10 pts) 1. The process of buying a house, improving it and selling it for a profit is called money making. 2. Marcus says that buyers need to do their homework before they buy a house at an auction. 3. When renovating a house, Marcus suggests that buyers think about what fittings future occupants will need. 4. People advertise in newspapers because they want to sell their homes at lower price. 5. Marcus suggests contacting the land registry if you find an empty house. Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Part 3. You will hear a student called Tina asking Professor VanDiezen for advice on choosing courses. Listen and answer the following questions, using NO MORE THAN FIVE WORDS for each answer. (10 pts) 1. What is the defining characteristic of a specialised course? …………………………………………………………………………………………… 2. For whom the Microbiology courses are available? …………………………………………………………………………………………… 3. Who are interested in Microbiology courses? ……………………………………………………………………………………………
4. Why will a Medical Science course be opened next year? …………………………………………………………………………………………… 5. Which is the quickest increasing subject in enrolment? …………………………………………………………………………………………… Part 4. Listen to a piece of news about the three countries with the best healhcare and fill in the gaps using NO MORE THAN FOUR WORDS OR NUMBER for each blank ( 20 pts) Higher quality care, with higher life expectancy and lower rates of disease are often (1) _______ by citizens in the rest of the world. Spain was one of the top (2) ______ in the world with $ (3) ______ roughtly spent on each person. In its (4) “ ________” system, most citizens see no out-of-pocket expenses when they visit public hospitals. Unlike Spain, only 1,6 % of (5) _____________ goes towards healthcare costs. In addition, there is Medisave system – a (6) ________, where 9% of empolyee salaries are required to (7) ______ for personal or family care. Both (8) _____ are used in the autonomous territory of Hong Kong. However, private hospitals are reportedly speedy but very expensive. While these three countries get the most (9) ______, applying worldwide is difficult. By comparison, that the United States is enormous, with a population of over 320 million makes (10) ________ harder to implement without serious complications. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (30 pts) Part 1. Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) which best completes each sentence(10 pts) 1. The president was eventually _______ by a military coup. A. disposed
B. despised
C. deposed
D. dispersed
2. The collapse of the silver market left him financially _______. A. desolate
B. dejected
C. destitute
D. derelict
3. He _______ so much harm on the nation during his regime that it has never fully recovered. A. indicted
B. inferred
C. induced
D. inflicted
4. Union leaders called for_______ between themselves and the government. A. speeches
B. elections
C. debates
D. consultations
5. It was clear from the beginning of the meeting that Jack was _______ on causing trouble. A. inclined
B. predisposed
C. bent
D. obsessed
6. The Internet has led to the faster and more effective _______ of information. A. expansion
B. coverage
C. spread
D. dissemination
7. This is the kind of crime that all decent people in society _______. A. appall
B. frown
C. deplore
D. disallow
8. For many young people, driving cars at high speed seems to _______ a rather fatal fascination. A. contain
B. comprise
C. weave
D. hold
9. On the news there was some dramatic _______ of the earthquake that had been captured by an amateur cameraman. A. shooting
B. scenery
C. clipping
D. footage
10. I did not mean to offend her but she took my comments _______ and now will not talk to me. A. amiss
B. awry
C. apart
D. aside
Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
Part 2. Fill in the gaps in the following sentences with suitable particles. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes ( 5 pts) 1. The Minister is also implicated __________ the scandal. 2. Irrespective _________ the poor weather conditions the search for the missing child was continued. 3. I have been using her computer ever since she placed it __________ my disposal. 4. I met him at the party and he asked __________ you. 5. You can't miss him. That haircut makes him stand ___________ in a crowd. Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Part 4. Write the correct form of each bracketed word in the corresponding numbered boxes on the answer sheet. There is an example at the beginning (0) ( 10 pts)
Juvenile Crime Juvenile 0. (delinquent) ___________ refers to 1. (society) 0. delinquency ____________ or illegal behavior by children or adolescents and is 1. considered a serious problem all over the world. It is caused by ________________ social, economic and cultural factors. This juvenile 2. (crime) 2. _______________ is apparent in marginal sectors of urban areas ________________ where children are exposed to violence in their immediate social 3. environment, either as observers or as victims. Because delinquent ________________ basic education, if they have any, is poor they have been 3. (margin) 4. ______________ from society and destitute of any dignity or self ________________ esteem. Although most legal systems prescribe specific procedures 5. for dealing with young criminals, such as juvenile detention centers ________________ and 4.(suppress) ____________, approaches to prevent youth from 6. becoming delinquent should also include measures to instill equality ________________ and justice, fight poverty and create an atmosphere of hope and 7. peace among youth. These 5. (prevent) ____________ policies ________________ should be 6. (prior) ____________ over any 7. (coerce) 8. ____________ measures. ________________ Information campaigns should be planned to 8. (sensitive) 9. ____________ youth to be aware of the detrimental effects of ________________ violence on the family, community and society, to teach them how to 10. communicate without violence. Focus on the importance of family ________________ should become a priority because it is the primary institution of 9. (social) _______________
of youth and continues to play an
important role in the prevention of juvenile delinquency and 10. (old) ______________ crime. Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
READING (60 PTS) Part 1. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap. Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes.( 10 pts) Every now and then we hear someone claiming to be ____________ or to experience precognitive dreams or to have premonitions about imminent _____________. Sometimes, we meet people who have
participated in spiritualistic seances where they have ____________ miraculous parapsychological occurences or listened to mediums making their pessimistic prophecies about the future or even using their second sight for _____________ past memories. Parapsychology or extrasensory perception which includes such phenomena as spychokinesis, clairvoyance and out-of-body experiences is fiercely _____________ by its opponents finding no scrap of evidence for the reliability of performances like foreseeing future events or ____________ messages without any use of sensory means, namely, by telepathy. Neverthless, the acquisition of information by use of nonsensory channels can sometimes be of great advantage to those who aspire at ___________ the most enigmatic questions like the mysterious cases of crime or missing individuals. Although officially the police deny having ___________ to parapsychology, they do benefit from its vast potential whenever any clear evidence is ___________. The psychics are then employed with the hope that their original practices will throw new light on many cases. Despite the growing interest in extrasensory perception and its possible applications, convetional scientists disregard it as highly ______________. 1. A. clairvoyant
B. supernatural
C. extraordinary
D. subconscious
2. A. discrepancies
B. qualms
C. turmoils
D. adversities
3. A. beheld
B. overlooked
C. visualized
D. partaken
4. A. invigorating
B. rejuvenating
C. animating
D. resuscitating
5. A. dispelled
B. deprecated
C. deferred
D. dispensed
6. A. releasing
B. emanating
C. transmitting
D. dissenting
7. A. disentangling
B. renouncing
8. A. support
B. aid
9. A. falling short
B. laying bare
10. A. benevolent
B. obscure
C. exploring
D. detecting
C. plea
D. recourse
C. running low
D. coming clean
C. incongruous
D. irrefutable
Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
Part 2. For questions 1-10, read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only one word in each space.( 15 pts) In most discussions of cultural diversity, attention has focused on visible, explicit aspects of culture, such as language, dress, food, religion, music, and social rituals. Although they are important, these visible expressions of culture, which are taught deliberately and learned consciously, are only the (1) ………….. of the iceberg of culture. Much of culture is taught and learned implicitly, or outside awareness. Thus, neither cultural insiders nor cultural outsiders are aware that certain "invisible” aspects of their culture (2) ………..
Invisible elements of culture are important to us. For example, how long we can be late (3) …………..being impolite, what topics we should avoid in a conversation, how we show interest or attention through listening behavior, what we consider beautiful or ugly. These are all (4) ………… of culture that we learn and use without being aware of it. When we meet other people whose invisible cultural assumptions differ from (5) ……………. we have learned implicitly, we usually do not recognize their behavior as cultural in origin. Differences in invisible culture can cause problems in (6) ………… relations. Conflicts may arise when we are unable to recognize others’ behavioral differences as cultural rather than (7) …………. We tend to misinterpret other people’s behavior, blame them, or judge their intentions or competence without realizing that we are experiencing cultural rather than individual differences. Formal organizations and institutions, such as schools, hospitals, workplaces, governments, and the legal system are collection sites for invisible cultural differences. If the differences were more visible, we might have less (8)………… . For example, if we met a man in a courthouse who was wearing exotic clothes, speaking a language (9) ……………. than ours, and carrying food that looked strange, we would not assume that we understood his thoughts and feelings or that he understood ours. Yet when such a man is dressed similarly to us, speaks our language, and does not differ from us in other obvious ways, we may fail to recognize the invisible cultural differences between us. As a result, mutual misunderstanding may (10) …………….
( Extracted from “ Succeed in Cambridge English, CAE”)
Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
Part 3. Read the following passages and answer the questions ( 10 pts) You are going to read reviews of four science fiction films. For questions 1 – 10, choose from the reviews (A – D). The reviews may be chosen more than once. About which of the films is the following stated? 1. The storyline is largely irrelevant. 2. One of the leading actors gives an outstanding performance. 3. The true nature of a leading character is disputed. 4. Its characters have unremarkable lifestyles. 5. There is fierce debate about what it means. 6. It’s often voted one of the best science fiction movies in history. 7. Key features of the film are scientifically unconvincing.
8. It poses questions that humans have always asked themselves. 9. One scene still shocks viewers today. 10. Some of the dialogue makes little sense. Great science fiction films Terry Stevens reviews four great science fiction films. A. Blade Runner (1982) Whether you prefer the original, rather theatrical release or the director’s cut of a few years later, Blade Runner is perennially placed in opinion polls among the top five movies ever made in the genre. Directed by Ridley Scott, the film revolves around Harrison Ford’s policeman, Rick Deckard, and his hunt for four cloned humans, known as replicants, in an authoritarian city state sometime in the future. Replicants have been declared illegal and Deckard is a ‘blade runner’, a specialist in exterminating them. Adding to the interest is the issue of whether Deckard himself is a replicant. This is never clearly resolved in the film, and fans continue to disagree over this point. When it first came out, the reception was muted, but it has grown in popularity and critics now lavish praise on it. ‘It was groundbreaking in some ways,’ says one prominent American writer on film, ‘but what it’s really about is something we’ve been interested in since the beginning of history: What is it to be human? That’s what makes it truly great.’ B. 001: A Space Odyssey (1968) One of the most controversial films of any genre, 2001: A Space Odyssey came from a collaboration between the director, Stanley Kubrick, and the science fiction writer, Arthur C Clarke. It’s not an easy film to sum up. The plot is mostly beside the point. It involves a government cover-up of something called the Monolith, and a malfunctioning computer’s efforts to preserve the integrity of a space mission. Almost independently of this are separate strands dealing with human evolution from prehistoric times to the space age. Many have attempted to try and pin down this work with explanations about its deeper significance and purpose, and to this day there are heated exchanges about this. What stays in the mind, though, is the impact the film has on the senses. It has a soundtrack of often dissonant classical music played so loud that it often interferes with what characters say. It is its astonishing visual style, however, that has probably had more lasting influence than anything else about it. C. Star Wars (1977) It is almost impossible to argue against the inclusion of Star Wars or its rather darker sequel Empire Strikes Back, in any list of top science fiction movies. Essentially westerns set in space, they cover the universal themes of good versus evil, while making the leading actors Harrison Ford, Mark Hamill and Carrie Fisher deliver lines of mind-boggling absurdity on a regular basis. The epic saga revolves around a battle between an authoritarian Empire led by the Emperor and his part-human, partmachine henchman Darth Vader on one side, and a small group of rebels on the other. The emphasis, however, is not on exploring deeper problems of the human condition. Nor, unlike some film-makers, do the creators of Star Wars trouble themselves with rooting their creations in the normal laws of physics; the force-wielding
Jedi fight with theoretically impossible light sabers and light-speed travel takes place in an implausible ‘hyperspace’. But the first two Star Wars films have been the supreme blockbusters and paved the way in creating franchises for toys, games and replicas that no major science fiction film can do without nowadays. D. Alien (1979) Alien is often remembered for the moment when an alien creature bursts out through the chest of one of the crew members on the spaceship. This iconic moment has the power to unnerve even the most cynical of contemporary audiences. The film has a lot more to it than that however. It is essentially an expertly made horror story set on board a spaceship. The alien life form which invades the spaceship is very sinister but it is made all the more so by the contrast with the portrayal of the ship’s crew. They are a bunch of very average people who sit around eating pizza, playing cards and getting bored. This contrast between the crew’s very mundane existence and the sheer awfulness of the alien is a very powerful one. Very striking too is Sigourney Weaver’s portrayal of the reluctant hero Ellen Ripley. She is a compelling screen presence in this movie and it established her as one of the top film actresses of her time. Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
Part 4. Choose the correct heading for each paragraph (1-5) from the list of headings below (i-x). There are more headings than paragraphs so you will not use all of them. Paragraphs B and G have been done for you as examples. ( 15 pts) List of Headings i. Disobeying FAA regulations ii. Aviation disaster prompts action iii. Two coincidental developments iv. Setting altitude zones v. An oversimplified view vi. Controlling pilots’ licences vii. Defining airspace categories viii. Setting rules to weather conditions ix. Taking off safely x. First steps towards ATC Example 1: Paragraph B 1. Paragraph A 2. Paragraph C 3. Paragraph D
Answer x
4. Paragraph E 5. Paragraph F Example 2: Paragraph G
Answer vii
AIR TRAFFIC CONTROL IN THE USA A. An accident that occurred in the skies over the Grand Canyon in 1956 resulted in the establishment of the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) to regulate and oversee the operation of aircraft in the skies over the United States, which were becoming quite congested. The resulting structure of air traffic control has greatly increased the safety of flight in the United States, and similar air traffic control procedures are also in place over much of the rest of the world. B. Rudimentary air traffic control (ATC) existed well before the Grand Canyon disaster. As early as the 1920s, the earliest air traffic controllers manually guided aircraft in the vicinity of the airports, using lights and flags, white beacons and flashing lights were placed along cross-country routes to establish the earliest airways. However, this purely visual system was useless in bad weather, and, by the 1930s, radio communication was coming into use for ATC. The first region to have something approximating today’s ATC was New York City, with other major metropolitan areas following soon after. C. In the 1940s, ATC centres could and did take advantage of the newly developed radar and improved radio communication brought about by the Second World War, but the system remained rudimentary. It was only after the creation of the FAA that full-scale regulation of America’s airspace took place, and this was fortuitous, for the advent of the jet engine suddenly resulted in a large number of very fast planes, reducing pilots’ margin of error and practically demanding some set of rules to keep everyone well separated and operating safely in the air. D. Many people think that ATC consists of a row of controllers sitting in front of their radar screens at the nation’s airports, telling arriving and departing traffic what to do. This is a very incomplete part of the picture. The FAA realised that the airspace over the United States would at any time have many different kinds of planes, flying for many different purposes, in a variety of weather conditions, and the same kind of structure was needed to accommodate all of them. E. To meet this challenge, the following elements were put into effect. First, ATC extends over virtually the entire United States. In general, from 365m above the ground and higher, the entire country is blanketed by controlled airspace. In certain areas, mainly near airports, controlled airspace extends down to 215m around the ground, and, in the immediate vicinity of an airport, all the way down to the surface. Controlled airspace is that airspace in which FAA regulations apply. Elsewhere, in uncontrolled airspace, pilots are bound by fewer regulations. In this way, the recreational pilot who simply wishes to go flying for a while without all the restrictions imposed by the FAA has only to stay in uncontrolled airspace,
below 365m, while the pilot who does want the protection afforded by ATC can easily enter the controlled airspace. F. The FAA then recognized two types of operating environments. In good meteorological conditions, flying would be permitted under Visual Flight Rules (VFR), which suggests a strong reliance on visual cues to maintain an acceptable level of safety. Poor visibility necessitated a set of Instrumental Flight Rules (IFR), under which the pilot relied on altitude and navigational information provided by the plane’s instrument panel to fly safely. On a clear day, a pilot in controlled airspace can choose a VFR or IFR flight plan, and the FAA regulations were devised in a way which accommodates both VFR and IFR operations in the same airspace. However, a pilot can only choose to fly IFR if they possess an instrument rating which is above and beyond the basic pilot’s license that must also be held. G. Controlled airspace is divided into several different types, designated by letters of the alphabet. Uncontrolled airspace is designated Class F, while controlled airspace below 5,490m is designated Class A. The reason for the division of Class E and Class A airspace is where one finds general aviation aircraft (few of which can climb above 5,490m anyway), and commercial turboprop aircraft. Above 5,490m is the realm of the heavy jets, since jet engines operate more efficiently at higher altitudes. The difference between Class E and A airspace is that in Class A, all operations are IFR, and pilots must be instrument-rated, that is, skilled and licensed in aircraft instrumentation. This is because ATC control of the entire space is essential. Three other types of airspace, Classes D, C and B, govern the vicinity of airports. These correspond roughly to small municipal, medium-sized metropolitan and major metropolitan airports respectively, and encompass an increasingly rigorous set of regulations. For example, all a VFR pilot has to do to enter Class C airspace is establish two-way radio contact with ATC. No explicit permission from ATC to enter is needed, although the pilot must continue to obey all regulations governing VFR flight. To enter Class B airspace, such as on approach to a major metropolitan airport, an explicit ATC clearance is required. The private pilot who cruises without permission into this airspace risks losing their license. Your answers: 1. ……………
2. ……………
3. ……………
4. ……………
5. ……………
Task 2. Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer in the reading passage? Write in the corresponding numbered boxes YES (Y)
if the statement agrees with the information given in the passage
NO (N)
if the statement contradicts the information given in the passage
NO INFORMATION (NI)
if there is no information on this in the passage
1. The FAA was created as a result of the introduction of the jet engine. 2. Beacons and flashing lights are still used by ATC today. 3. Some improvements were made in radio communication during World War II. 4. All aircraft in Class E airspace must use IFR.
5. A pilot entering Class C airspace is flying over an average-sized city. ( Extracted from “Expert on Cambridge IELTS 3”) Your answers: 1. ……………
2. ……………
3. ……………
4. ……………
5. ……………
Part 5. Read the following passage and choose the most suitable sentence from A to G on the list for each gap from 1 to 5. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. There are two extra sentences which you do not need to use ( 10 pts) (1) __________. Creative genius is, in fact, latent with many of us without our realizing it. But how far do we need to travel to find the path to creativity? For many people, it is a long way. In our everyday lives, we have to perform many acts out of habit to survive, like door opening, shaving, getting dressed, walking to work, and so on. If this were not the case, we would, in all probability, become mentally unhinged. So strongly ingrained are our habits, though this varies from person to person, that, sometimes, when a conscious effort is made to be creative, automatic response takes over. We may try, for example, to walk to work following a different route, but end up on our usual path. By then, it is too late to go back and change our minds. Another day, perhaps. This applies to all other areas of our lives. When we are solving problems, for example, we may seek different answers, but, as often as not, find ourselves walking along the same well-trodden paths. So, for many people, their actions and behavior are set in immovable blocks, their minds clogged with the cholesterol of habitual actions, preventing them from operating freely, and thereby stifling creation. (2) __________ – the obsessive desire to give order to the world is a case in point. Witness people’s attitude to time, social customs and the panoply of rules and regulations by which the human mind is now circ*mscribed. The groundwork for keeping creative ability in check begins at school. School, later university and work teach us to regulate our lives, imposing a continuous process of restrictions, which is increasing exponentially with the advancement of technology. Is it surprising then that creative ability appears to be so rare? It is trapped in the prison that we have erected. Yet, even here in this hostile environment, the foundations for creativity are being laid, because setting off on the creative path is also partly about using rules and regulations. (3) __________. The truly creative mind is often seen as totally free and unfettered. But a better image is of a mind, which can be free when it wants, and one that recognizes that rules and regulations are parameters, or barriers, to be raised and dropped again at will. An example of how the human mind can be trained to be creative might help here. People’s minds are just like tense muscles that need to be freed up and the potential unlocked. One strategy is to erect artificial barriers or hurdles in solving a problem. As a form of stimulation, the participants in the task can be forbidden to use particular solutions or to follow certain lines of thought to solve a problem. In this way, they are obliged to explore unfamiliar territory, which may lead to some startling discoveries. (4) __________. There is also an element of fear involved,
however subliminal, as deviating from the safety of one’s own thought patterns is very much akin to madness. But, open Pandora’s box, and a whole new world unfolds before your very eyes. (5) __________. Parameters act as containers for ideas, and thus help the mind to fix on them. When the mind is thinking laterally, and two ideas from different areas of the brain come or are brought together, they form a new idea, just like atoms floating around and then forming a molecule. Once the idea has been formed, it needs to be contained or it will fly away, so fleeting is its passage. The mind needs to hold it in place for a time so that it can recognize it or call on it again. And then, the parameters can act as channels along which the ideas can flow, develop, and expand. When the mind has brought the idea to fruition by thinking it through to its final conclusion, the parameters can be brought down and the idea allowed to float off and come in contact with other ideas. A. Such limitations are needed so that once they are learnt, they can be broken B. Unfortunately, the difficulty in this exercise, and with creation itself, is convincing people that creation is possible, shrouded as it is in so much myth and legend C. Unfortunately, mankind’s very struggle for survival has become a tyranny D. Creativity brings people success and wealth E. It is a myth that creative people are born with their talents: gifts from God or nature F. Lifting barriers into place also plays a major part in helping the mind to control ideas rather than letting them collide at random G. People’s habits are formed to prevent creativity ( Extracted from “15 Days’ Practice for IELTS Reading”) Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Part 2. The chart shows the division of household tasks by gender in Great Britain. Write a report for a university lecture describing the information shown below. You should write at least 150 words ( 15 pts)
17.
CHUYÊN TRẦN PHÚ - HẢI PHÒNG
I. LISTENING Part 1: For questions 1-5, you will hear a radio interview with the gardening experts Jed and Helena Stone. First, you have 30 seconds to look at Part 1. Then, listen and decide whether the following sentences are True (T), False (F) or Not Given (NG) according to what you hear. Write your answers in the box provided. 1. Helena feels amused that she and Jed have a name people tend to remember. 2. Jed would appreciate it were he in public places without being recognised. 3. When Helena started her work on The Travel Show, she felt obliged to do it. 4. Jed was inspired to make a jewel garden by the illustrations at a talk he attended. 5. Helena agrees with Jed that the name “jewel garden” represents a way to positively combine both past and present. Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Part 2: For questions 6-12, you will hear an archeologist talking about an experience he had in South America. First, you have 1 minute to look at Part 2. Then, complete the notes below by writing NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each question in the box provided. The archeologist’s original task was to (6) ______ the ruined city and the area around it. - It appears that the (7) ______ air exhaled by visitors is damaging the walls. - The archeologist wanted to survey a tomb near the site of a proposed (8) ______. - Unfortunately, the tomb had been damaged by flood water from (9) ______. - The archeologist lost his footing on some (10) ______. -
As he fell, he broke his (11) ______.
- He was found when a (12) ______ heard his shouts for help. Your answers: 6.
10.
7.
11.
8.
12.
9. Part 3: For questions 13-17, you will hear an interview with Sue Millins, who has recently introduced a new teaching approach into her school. First, you have 1 minute to look at Part 3. Then, choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. Write your answers in the box provided. 13. The original cause of the school’s decline was ______.
A. the old-fashioned character of the school B. the transformation of the neighbourhood C. the number of families living in the area D. the low number of children in the area 14. The school was not closed down thanks to ______. A. the parent’s refusal to allow it B. the decision to follow the national curriculum C. the fact that the children were behaving better D. the bad conditions the children live in 15. The traditional methods of teaching were abandoned because ______. A. the children were not able to read B. tests would be easier to mark C. they would have made things worse D. not enough research had been done 16. The aim of the lesson involving the bear is to ______. A. teach the children drama B. make the children feel more at ease C. teach the children about animals D. help the children to read and write 17. The method is considered successful because ______. A. the Department of Education wants to use it B. children are interested in the arts C. it allows teachers to use their intuition D. there is better achievement in all subjects Your answers: 13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR Part 1: For questions 26-45, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to each of the following questions. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. 26. Egypt is a fantastic country for tourists. It’s absolutely ______ in history. A. soaked B. drenched C. steeped D. saturated 27. I wanted to talk, but she was determined to sweep the matter under the ______. A. cupboard B. table C. carpet D. bed 28. The newspaper story was based on an interview which had been done off the ______. A. script B. record C. key D. tape 29. Before you make a decision you should ______ all the issues involved. A. weigh through B. weigh out C. weigh up D. weigh down 30. I’m afraid that cycling is off the ______ until the weather improves. A. record B. card C. track D. menu 31. I read some pretty ______ news about the economy today. A. challenging B. jumpy C. disconcerting D. cutting 32. He spent too much on his credit card, and now he can’t ______ the minimum payments. A. keep on B. keep in C. keep to D. keep up 33. Her condition is improving, but she's not out of the ______. A. dark B. cupboard C. woods D. fire 34. Some electric cars have a ______ of 150 kilometres. A. run B. distance C. range D. scope 35. ______, I’d like to say how much I’ve enjoyed our meeting.
A. Finally B. At last C. Eventually D. After all 36. I’d give up my job ______ if only I could find a better one. A. at one swoop B. at the drop of a hat C. on the dot D. on the spur of the moment 37. The hotel, though obviously grand in its day, appeared rather neglected and ______ when we checked in. A. tumble-down B. downcast C. down-and-out D. run-down 38. If you’d like to take a seat in the waiting room till the doctor can see you, you’ll find plenty of magazines to ______. A. refer to B. browse through C. look over D. stare at 39. I’d say let’s meet on Saturday, but I’m none ______ sure what’s happening at the weekend. A. so B. very C. that D. too 40. Since we had only one day left, we decided to make an ______ effort to finish the run in record time. A. all-in B. all-out C. overall D. all-round 41. As he was caught ______ an offensive weapon, he was immediately a suspect. A. in possession of B. on ownership of C. with handling with D. out of control with 42. We might just as well have stayed at home ______ the enjoyment we had. A. on account of B. as far as C. for all D. concerning 43. You should only make serious accusations like that if they have a sound ______ in fact. A. basis B. foothold C. framework D. principle 44. He hadn’t prepared a speech; he just made a few remarks ______. A. off the cuff B. at first sight C. up his sleeve D. out of the back of his neck 45. Martin needs to get a ______ on his finances if he’s not to face serious difficulties with the bank. A. grasp B. clutch C. grip D. clasp 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
1O.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
Part 2: For questions 46-50, write the correct form of each bracketed word in the numbered space provided in the column on the right. Sultan Abdul Hamid II was the last of the great rulers of the Ottoman house of Osman. As the immediate (46. SUCCEED) to two sultans who had been deposed, he came to the throne a very nervous man. He considered security at his palaces to be far too lax, and set about building a new (47. PENETRATE) palace from scratch. To this end, he secured the services of a dozen architects and (48. MISSION) each to build just one twelfth of the palace, working in complete ignorance of the progress of the
46. __________________
47. __________________
other eleven. In effect, the Sultan built himself the world's most elaborate and extensive prison. Every room was connected to a secret underground passage and many of the rooms were booby-trapped: at the flick of a switch, cupboards would fly open and mechanically controlled revolvers would fire. The Sultan employed thousands of spies and secret agents; the ones he considered most trustworthy being the hundreds of caged parrots which were hung on street corners and trained to squawk if they saw a stranger. Another of his many (49. PECULIAR) was that he always carried a pearl-handled revolver. No-one dared put their hands in their pockets in his presence - to do so would have been an invitation for him to take a pot shot. When one of his daughters once (50. PLAY) gave him a shove from behind, he spun round and shot her before realizing who it was.
48. __________________
49. __________________
50. __________________ III. READING Part 1: For questions 51-60, fill each of the following numbered blanks with ONE suitable word. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. ON THE OTHER HAND? We left-handed people lack collective pride. We just try to get by, in our clumsy way. We make (51) ______ demands and we avoid a fuss. I used to say whenever someone watched me sign my name and remarked that he or she was also left-handed: "You and me and Leonardo da Vinci!" That was a weak joke, but it contained my often unconscious desire to (52) ______ to Left Pride, a social movement that doesn't (53) ______ exist but I hope may one day come. There are many false stories about the left-handed in circulation: for example, a few decades ago someone wrote that Picasso was left-handed, and others kept (54) ______ it, but the proof is all to the contrary. The great genius Einstein is often still claimed as one of (55) ______, also without proof. And sadly, there is also no truth in the myth that the left-handed (56) ______ to be smarter and more creative. Despite the amount of research that has been carried out, researchers in the field are still in two (57) ______ about what we mean by left-handed. Apparently a third of those who write with their left hand throw a ball with their right. However, those using their right hand for (58) ______ rarely throw with their left. A difficult skill that becomes crucial at a (59) ______ impressionable age, writing defines what you will call yourself. I have never used scissors, baseball bat, hockey stick or computer mouse with anything but my right; even so, I think I'm left-handed as (60) ______ everyone else. Your answers: 51.
56.
52.
57.
53.
58.
54.
59.
55.
60.
Part 2: For questions 61-70, read the following passage and do the tasks that follow. THE ROBOTS ARE COMING What is the current state of play in Artificial Intelligence? Paragraph A Can robots advance so far that they become the ultimate threat to our existence? Some scientists say no, and dismiss the very idea of Artificial Intelligence. The human brain, they argue, is the most complicated system ever created, and any machine designed to reproduce human thought is bound to fail. Physicist Roger Penrose of Oxford University and others believe that machines are physically incapable of human thought. Colin McGinn of Rutgers University backs this up when he says that Artificial Intelligence ‘is like sheep trying to do complicated psychoanalysis. They just don’t have the conceptual equipment they need in their limited brains’. Paragraph B Artificial Intelligence, or Al, is different from most technologies in that scientists still understand very little about how intelligence works. Physicists have a good understanding of Newtonian mechanics and the quantum theory of atoms and molecules, whereas the basic laws of intelligence remain a mystery. But a sizable number of mathematicians and computer scientists, who are specialists in the area, are optimistic about the possibilities. To them it is only a matter of time before a thinking machine walks out of the laboratory. Over the years, various problems have impeded all efforts to create robots. To attack these difficulties, researchers tried to use the ‘top- down approach’, using a computer in an attempt to program all the essential rules onto a single disc. By inserting this into a machine, it would then become self-aware and attain human-like intelligence. Paragraph C In the 1950s and 1960s great progress was made, but the shortcomings of these prototype robots soon became clear. They were huge and took hours to navigate across a room. Meanwhile, a fruit fly, with a brain containing only a fraction of the computing power, can effortlessly navigate in three dimensions. Our brains, like the fruit fly’s, unconsciously recognize what we see by performing countless calculations. This unconscious awareness of patterns is exactly what computers are missing. The second problem is robots’ lack of common sense. Humans know that water is wet and that mothers are older than their daughters. But there is no mathematics that can express these truths. Children learn the intuitive laws of biology and physics by interacting with the real world. Robots know only what has been programmed into them. Paragraph D Because of the limitations of the top-down approach to Artificial Intelligence, attempts have been made to use a ‘bottom-up’ approach instead – that is, to try to imitate evolution and the way a baby learns. Rodney Brooks was the director of MIT’s Artificial Intelligence laboratory, famous for its lumbering ‘top- down’ walking robots. He changed the course of research when he explored the unorthodox idea of tiny ‘insectoid’ robots that learned to walk by bumping into things instead of computing mathematically the precise position of their feet. Today many of the descendants of Brooks’ insectoid robots are on Mars gathering data for NASA (The National Aeronautics and Space Administration), running across the dusty
landscape of the planet. For all their successes in mimicking the behavior of insects, however, robots using neural networks have performed miserably when their programmers have tried to duplicate in them the behavior of higher organisms such as mammals. MIT’s Marvin Minsky summarises the problems of Al: ‘The history of Al is sort of funny because the first real accomplishments were beautiful things, like a machine that could do well in a maths course. But then we started to try to make machines that could answer questions about simple children’s stories. There’s no machine today that can do that.’ Paragraph E There are people who believe that eventually there will be a combination between the top- down and bottom-up, which may provide the key to Artificial Intelligence. As adults, we blend the two approaches. It has been suggested that our emotions represent the quality that most distinguishes us as human, that it is impossible for machines ever to have emotions. Computer expert Hans Moravec thinks that in the future robots will be programmed with emotions such as fear to protect themselves so that they can signal to humans when their batteries are running low, for example. Emotions are vital in decision-making. People who have suffered a certain kind of brain injury lose the ability to experience emotions and become unable to make decisions. Without emotions to guide them, they debate endlessly over their options. Moravec points out that as robots become more intelligent and are able to make choices, they could likewise become paralysed with indecision. To aid them, robots of the future might need to have emotions hardwired into their brains. Paragraph F There is no universal consensus as to whether machines can be conscious, or even, in human terms, what consciousness means. Minsky suggests the thinking process in our brain is not localised but spread out, with different centres competing with one another at any given time. Consciousness may then be viewed as a sequence of thoughts and images issuing from these different, smaller ‘minds’, each one competing for our attention. Robots might eventually attain a ‘silicon consciousness’. Robots, in fact, might one day embody an architecture for thinking and processing information that is different from ours – but also indistinguishable. If that happens, the question of whether they really ‘understand’ becomes largely irrelevant. A robot that has perfect mastery of syntax, for all practical purposes, understands what is being said. The reading passage has six paragraphs, A-F. Which paragraph contains the following information? Write the correct letter, A-F, in boxes 61-67. You may use any letter more than once. 61. An insect that proves the superiority of natural intelligence over Artificial Intelligence 62. Robots being able to benefit from their mistakes 63. Many researchers not being put off believing that Artificial Intelligence will eventually be developed 64. An innovative approach that is having limited success 65. The possibility of creating Artificial Intelligence being doubted by some academics 66. No generally accepted agreement of what our brains do 67. Robots not being able to extend the intelligence in the same way as humans Your answers: 61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
Look at the following people (Questions 68-70) and the list of statements below. Match each person with the correct statement A-E. Write the correct letter, A-E, in boxes 68-70. 68. Colin McGinn 69. Marvin Minsky 70. Hans Moravec A. Artificial Intelligence may require something equivalent to feelings in order to succeed. B. Different kinds of people use different parts of the brain. C. Tests involving fiction have defeated Artificial Intelligence so far. D. People have intellectual capacities which do not exist in computers. E. People have no reason to be frightened of robots. Your answers: 68.
69.
70.
Part 3: For questions 71-75, you are going to read an extract from an article. Five paragraphs have been removed from the extract. Choose from the paragraphs A-F the one which fits each gap (71-75). There is one extra paragraph which you do not need to use. A REALISTIC VIEW One of the most memorable scenes from Francis Ford Coppola’s Apocalypse Now shows a beach landing by US troops under heavy fire. As the camera pans around, we catch a glimpse of Coppola himself, directing another film crew, shouting ‘Don’t look at the camera!’ as the actors stream past. 71 The image, and especially the moving image, has a power that text and spoken word has not; the power of immediate impact. Whereas before Vietnam, casualties of war would be reported in dry figures, now the viewer could see the corpses strewn on the battlefield. The images of the Vietnam War undoubtedly played a part in creating the anti-war movement back in the States, and the eventual ceasefire. 72 And because the camera is ever-present, the other mass media, especially newspapers, are being forced to take steps to compete. No longer is it enough to collect various stories and patch together an article; the modern-day journalist is expected to provide an eyewitness account of the front lines of a battle, must live among the combatants and duck under the live bullets and avoid the explosions along with them. 73 It has also led to an extremely alarming rise in the numbers of casualties, including fatalities, among members of the press. This reached such a level during the Bosnian War that staff from different media networks banded together, refusing to send more than one camera crew into the field at a time and pooling all the footage obtained. 74 This means good pictures, certainly, and the gritty scenes that keep the viewer hooked. However, if every news show has the same pictures, why should the viewers watch one show over another? What a news show wants are the exclusive pictures; to be the only channel that shows this shot, that angle, these exciting sequences.
75 Journalists are often deeply ambitious, driven people, insatiable in their chase for the big story that will make their name, their career. They know very well that news does not get any bigger than war news, and so when a conflict breaks out, they flock to the scene, itching to get into the heat of the action. So when the US invaded Afghanistan, it was not just troops that went over the border. Journalists, cameramen, photographers, all went along for the ride, penetrating areas of the country shunned even by the US military, all in search of that elusive goal, the exclusive, whether in the form of an article, a photograph or a video clip. The missing paragraphs A. It leads to rather incongruous scenes. Enemies exchanging gunfire along a city street, hugging the walls of buildings. Behind them, similarly crouched, is a cameraman aiming lens instead of gun; a reporter clutching a microphone in a white-knuckled fist is hiding behind him, babbling commentary to a live audience. However, sensible measures such as these are not good enough for the networks. The images thus B. obtained may be real, may show the situation as it is happening on the ground, but what a news show wants above all else is not the truth, especially. It wants good TV. They come with their notebooks open and pens poised, their cameras loaded, ready to snap or roll. C. They are the war correspondents, veterans of Bosnia, Somalia and Kosovo, battle-scarred and hardened, more ready for combat than most of the soldiers they stop to interview. Why was the mistake not taken out of the final cut? Because it fitted perfectly. The Vietnam War D. was the first war to be properly televised, and scenes from it were part and parcel of the average American’s experience of the war. So the scene in the film looks authentic precisely because it has a film crew on the sidelines, shooting the soldiers going into action. At every opportunity, the networks will be putting pressure on their staff to capture the fresh, the E. new, to venture deeper and deeper into the battlefield in search of that award-winning scoop. And, if the truth be known, they rarely find themselves running particularly short of volunteers. So it has become expected that every war be accompanied by a visual commentary, and this has F. necessitated the sending of camera crews into war zones to capture the moments on celluloid (or now, video). A war is no longer a real war unless it is televised. Your answers: 71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
Part 4: For questions 76-85, read an extract from an article on language and choose the answer A, B, C or D which you think fits best according to the text. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
AN UNLIKELY MUSE A new wave of music and arts projects has emerged, focusing on someone who may seem for some a dubious source of inspiration. Imelda Marcos, former first lady of the Philippines, is currently becoming the subject of musicals, song cycles and shows on a worldwide arena.
When the Marcos regime collapsed in 1986, and Imelda and her husband Ferdinand were exiled in Hawaii, they carried with them allegations of embezzlement, corruption and human rights abuses. Imelda had spent the last twenty years living off a seemingly endless supply of funds, living an exotic and glamorous lifestyle and rubbing shoulders with powerful figures worldwide. In 1972, when the superstar couple’s popularity was fading and they were at risk of losing their power, Ferdinand Marcos instated martial, leading to an era of chaos and plunder, and what is described by some as the second most corrupt regime of the twentieth century. Ferdinand and Imelda fled in 1986 to escape the People’s Power Revolution, Imelda leaving behind some 2000 pairs of shoes. After her husband died in Hawaii due to ill health, Imelda stood trial in the United States on behalf of her husband. Following that, she returned to the Philippines to face seventy more counts of corruption and tax evasion. She has now returned to congress in the Philippines, her make-up and gowns as flawless as ever. So what makes Imelda Marcos such an appealing muse? Undoubtedly, Imelda Marcos’s resolute character which has withstood exile, legal battles and the wrath of her enemies makes her an appealing heroine, but film-maker Fenton Bailey attributes her iconicity to her sense of glamour and style, and her role as a cultural trend-setter. And like so many women who let nothing come between them and their goals, she has gained a certain iconic status, particularly among hom*osexuals, not unlike that of Judy Garland and Lady Gaga. And now the story of Imelda Marcos can be seen in the format of a musical, an artistic genre which is quite befitting for this flamboyant, entertaining figure of beauty and glamour. ‘Imelda – A new musical’ has played in Los Angeles and New York. The artistic director of the musical, Tim Dang, realises that the musical glosses over the darker aspects of the Marcos regime, but wanted to portray Imelda as a person with all her faults on display, leaving the audience to come to a verdict. However, despite the glitz of the show, reviews were mixed, stating the ‘the serio-comic spoof... had a vacuum at its centre’. The story of Imelda Marcos has also been immortalised as a song cycle, ‘Here Lies Love’ written by David Byrne and Norman Cook, in which Imelda comes across as both a hero and villain. Their reasoning was to try to understand the story of how people can attain positions of such power and greed. They were also inspired by Imelda’s love of dancing and clubbing, and how her own style of music could be incorporated into their own. Byrne adds that their story is not black and white – the couple were very popular at first, and Imelda headed a lot of public works in the Philippines and added much to the nation’s sense of culture and identity. At the Cultural Centre of the Philippines, a tour named ‘La Vida Imelda’ led by Carlos Sedran describes the life of Imelda Marcos, the cold war and martial law, while also portraying the glamour of the Imelda lifestyle. He describes it as an eternal story, in which her extravagance can be seen as either distasteful or in some ways estimable. There is a danger that these new art forms airbrush out the atrocity which accompanied the ostentation and glamour. It was a time when democracy was suppressed, political enemies disappeared, and billions of dollars which could have helped the poverty-stricken country were spent on the Marcos’s extravagant lifestyle. However, the artists involved are keen to make clear that the regime also resulted in great leaps forward in the country’s culture, architecture and infrastructure. The Marcos legacy remains in the form
of hospitals, Heart and Lung Centres, Folk Art theatres and homes for children and the elderly, notwithstanding that the Marcos couple set their war-ravaged, poverty-stricken land onto the world stage. 76. Why are Imelda’s shoes mentioned in the second paragraph? A. To illustrate how little she cared for her personal possessions B. To illustrate her love of fashion and beauty C. To indicate how quickly she had to flee the country D. To illustrate the extravagance of her lifestyle 77. What aspect of Imelda’s character is emphasised in paragraph 3? A. her flamboyance B. her beauty C. her doggedness D. her forbearance 78. Why is Imelda compared with Judy Garland and Lady Gaga? A. Due to her status as a gay icon B. Due to her ambition and drive C. Because she has created new fashions D. Because she has triumphed over legal battles 79. The phrase “rubbing shoulders” in the second paragraph mostly means ______. A. hobnobbing B. abetting C. fostering D. conferring 80. Why was the musical of Imelda’s life criticised? A. Because it did not portray Imelda’s faults B. Because the show was too shallow C. Because it was too glamorous and showy D. Because it was both serious and comedic 81. What was it about Imelda’s story that interested David Byrne and Norman Cooke? A. The ongoing themes of power, greed and music B. The fact that the story had both a clear hero and villain C. The reasoning why people such as Imelda become who they are D. The fact that her musical taste was similar to theirs 82. The word ‘incorporated in the sixth paragraph is closest in meaning to _____. A. inverted B. infused C. integrated D. interbred 83. According to Carlos Sedran, how do people respond to Imelda’s expensive lifestyle? A. Most people are shocked by it. B. It evokes both positive and negative feelings. C. People want to be like her. D. People realise why she did it. 84. The word ‘atrocity in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to _____. A. complexity B. indignity C. mendacity D. barbarity 85. Which of the following is not mentioned in the text as something Imelda Marcos did for the Philippines? A. She made health services available to the people. B. She gave the country a cultural identity. C. She reduced the levels of poverty for Filipino people. D. She drew the world’s attention to the country. Your answers: 76.
77.
78.
79. 80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
Part 5: For questions 86-95, you are going to read an article about the effects of tourism on local people. Choose from the people (A–E). The people may be chosen more than once. LIVING WITH TOURISM Five people describe how tourism has affected their home town. A. Leonor Sousa It can’t be denied that tourism has attracted investment, which has certainly raised living standards here, but the cost in other respects has been extremely high. Take the effect on the environment, for instance. When my parents were young this used to be an area of fields and woods, but now everything is covered in concrete. The tourists themselves aren’t responsible for this; it’s the construction companies, property developers and estate agents who are to blame because they’re the ones making all the money. They’re all based in the big cities and bring in their own people, so they hardly create any employment at all for local residents. B. Yusuf Demir When I was growing up in my home town there was a path I used to walk along to go to school, and last summer I went to see if it was still there. It was, but the view from it had changed completely. Now there is a vast shopping mall, with a cinema and cafés alongside. I don’t actually mind that, because it means there are lots more things to do, and I also like the fact that it has a really international atmosphere. It’s good for local people to meet visitors from other parts of the world, try new kinds of food and hear about different ways of living. C. Matt Walker Tourism has changed this town so much, even in the years since I was at junior school. In those days, there was a football pitch near the harbour where we would kick a ball around, but it’s gone now, which is a pity. In the harbour itself luxury yachts owned by people from richer parts of the country have replaced the fishing boats, to the extent that there is now no sign of what used to be the main source of income and employment locally. In the evenings, the town is certainly a lot livelier, but sometimes people start doing things they would never think of doing back in their own home towns, and then the police have to be called. D. Trisha Chandra I was just a child when tourism first took off here, and those incredibly ugly houses were built for summer visitors. The residents really should have protested about that. It was all the fault of the town council, who only ever thought in the short term and seemed to give planning permission to anyone who applied to build anything. Nowadays, there’s talk of ecological tourism, but that’s just a way of making people feel less guilty about the harm they are doing by making a few insignificant changes, such as re-using towels in their hotel rooms. E. Daniela Navarro I know some of the new hotels and holiday apartment blocks are unattractive, and that the bars, restaurants and nightclubs that cater for tourists have changed the nature of the town, but without them, unemployment – particularly among the young – would be far worse than it currently is. That, though, is as far as the economic benefits to the town go, as the only ones making any real money out of all this are the big tour operators and the owners of hotel chains, none of whom are actually based in this country.
Also, very few tourists learn our language. I know it must be difficult for them because most of them are quite old, but it means there’s little communication between us and them. Which person ______
Your Answers
misses a place they used to go to as a child?
86.
states that tourism provides a considerable number of jobs for local 87. people? wishes local people had opposed the construction of certain holiday 88. homes? claims that tourism has destroyed a traditional industry?
89.
blames the tourist industry for spoiling the local countryside?
90.
feels that the presence of people from other cultures benefits the 91. local community? criticises the behaviour of tourists in their town?
92.
says the town is wealthier than it was before it became a tourist 93. resort? believes that most of the profits from the local tourist industry go 94. abroad? is not convinced that so-called green tourism actually benefits the 95. environment? IV. WRITING Part 2: The table below gives information on consumer spending on different items in five different countries in 2002. Describe the information in the table and make comparisons where relevant. You should write about 150 words. PERCENTAGE OF NATIONAL CONSUMER EXPENDITURE BY CATEGORY – 2002 ***** Countr y
Food/Drink/Tobacco (%)
Clothing/Footwear (%)
Leisure/Education (%)
28.91
6.43
2.21
Italy
16.36
9.00
3.20
Spain
18.80
6.51
1.98
Sweden
15.77
5.40
3.22
Turkey
32.14
6.63
4.35
https://www.ielts-simon.com/ielts-help-and-english-pr/2011/12/ielts-writing-task-1-table-essay.html
18.
CHUYÊN TUYÊN QUANG
SECTION I. LISTENING (50pts) Part 1: You will hear part of a discussion on a current affairs programme between Nick Barnes and Alison Tempra about the performance of the company Facebook since it floated on the stock exchange, hosted by Emily Dunne. Choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. (10 pts) (Certificate of proficiency in English ) 1. What does Alison think is cause for optimism? A. the company kept its costs low. B. the loss generated was less than expected. C. there appears to be good revenue potential. D. the company hasn't started to advertise yet. 2. According to Nick, the increasing popularity of smaller devices ______. A. represents untapped potential for FACEBOOK. B. is a significant challenge to FACEBOOK increasing its revenue. C. puts FACEBOOK at a competitive advantage. D. gives the company an opportunity to advertise more. 3. In what situation does Alison believe FACEBOOK users might abandon the company? A. if they are given the option of watching adverts on the certain apps and sites. B. if a free social network becomes available on the net. C. if the company pushes advertisem*nts onto users too forcefully. D. if sites and apps start to appear which put users of using FACEBOOK. 4. What do we learn about the company's performance? A. the share price has now dropped by over one-third £. B. there has been a 6% improvement in the share price overnight. C. $38 has been wiped off the share price. D. it has become the biggest flop in history. 5 Nick believes that Google _______. A. will inevitably prevail over FACEBOOK in time. B. was short-sighted to invest everything it had into one project. C. technology will be made redundant by what FACEBOOK offers users. D. will become profit-making in a matter of time. Your answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Part 2: You are going to listen to a book club discussion about Toni Morrison’s Beloved. Listen and decide whether the following statements are true (T) or false (F). (10 pts) (https://elt.oup.com/student/openforum/3) 1. There have not been many African-American winners of this prize. 2. Sethe escapes from Kentucky to the North by herself. 3. Sethe's owner killed her oldest daughter. 4. The novel clearly states that Beloved is the ghost of Sethe's dead daughter. 5. The book focuses on the emotions of the character, not the history of slaver. Your answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Part 3: Listen to the talk with the new staff who haven’t been involved with the volunteering projects and answer the following questions. USE NO MORE THAN FOUR WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. Write your answer in the spaces provided.(10 pts) (Cambridge English – Ielts 13- Practice test 2) 1. How much time for volunteering does the company allow per employee? ............................................................................................................................................................. 2. What did some staff do to help unemployed people last year? ............................................................................................................................................................. 3. What will the company do with a local park this year? ............................................................................................................................................................. 4. Where will the Digital Inclusion Day be held? ............................................................................................................................................................. 5. What should staff do if they want to take part in the Digital Inclusion Day? ............................................................................................................................................................. SECTION II. GRAMMAR & VOCABULARY (30p.) Part 1. Choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to each of the following questions and write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (10 pts) 1. With over 30 years’ experience, John is the channel’s _______ reporter A. antique B. primitive C. veteran D. antique 2. Investigators have not yet _______ the possibility that he was being blackmailed. A. dug around B. ruled out C. boiled down to D. thrived on 3. Grace couldn’t help feeling _______about missing the championships because of her injury. A. despondent B. dehydrated C. devoted D. disobedient 4. It was hard to tell what the speaker was saying as she was ________. A. nagging B. tumbling C. shrinking D. drafting 5.The company has expanded rapidly and is now looking for larger _______. A. premises B. infrastructure C. threshold D. household 6. The final bill for the building work was _______ , so we refused to pay. A. prosperous B. hard up C. bankrupt D. exorbitant 7. While not a vegetarian, Kelly does have a strong ______to some kinds of meat. A. dread B.aversion C. protest D. demand 8. Limited as their financial _______ is, they are content with their lifestyle and never complain. A. assets B. wherewithal C. resources D. means 9. The local authority expressed regret as US drone strike has _______ killed innocent hostages. A. incongruously B. vehemently C. inadvertently D. graciously 10. His French is roughly ______ with my Japanese, so communication was rather difficult. A. in harmon B. on a par C. on equal term D. on good terms Your answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Part 3. Fill in the blank with a suitable preposition and write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (5 pts) 1. She felt it is _______ her to socialize with educated people. 2. He will be _______ for it when his parents discover he took the money. 3. You have no choice ______ the matter. You have to do what he says. 4. It might be a good idea to butter ______ the boss before you ask for a rise. 5. Having lived and worked in more than a dozen countroes, he thought it was about time he put _____ roots in one place. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Your answers: Part 4: Use the correct FORM of the word in capitals to fit each gap. Write your answer in the numbered box. (10 pts) One of the most lethal poisons on Earth,ten thousand times more (0) deadly than cyanide is tetrodotoxin, more concisely known as TTX. Its potency is well known in East Asia, where it regularly kills (1- DINE) __________ who have braved the capricious (2- DELICATE) ________ known as fugo or puffer fish. This toxin has a (3- TERROR) ________ method of operation: twenty-five minutes after exposure it begins to (4- PARALYSIS) _______its victims, leaving the victim fully aware of what is happening. Death usually results, within hours, from suffocation or heart failure. There is no known antidote. If lucky patients can (5- STAND) ________ the symptoms for twenty-four hours, they usually recover without further (6-COMPLICATE) _________It is no ordinary poison. What is strange about its (7-OCCUR)_______is that if is found in such a wide range of creatures, from algae to angelfish spanning entire kingdoms of life. It is rather unlikely that such an unusual toxin evolved (8-DEPEND)________in so many unrelated animals. Marine biologists have discovered that the poison is produced by bacteria living in the gut of its host. The best explanation is that a (9-SYMBIONT) ________ relationship exists between host and not the unwelcome guest, where microbes exchange poison for nutrients, providing a valuable (10-DEFEND) ________weapon for its host. Your answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. SECTION III. READING COMPREHENSION Part 1. Read the passage below and fill each of the following numbered spaces with ONE suitable word. Write your answers in the corresponding boxes provided. (15p) (0) has been done as an example. SIGNS OF THE TIMES We are familiar (0) with the saying “a picture paints a thousand words” and in the global village the world has become, information in pictorial form is (1)_____we turn. Much communication takes place through symbols rather than words, a case in point (2) ______ airports, where you can see the majority of the thirty-four symbols devised (3) ______ the American Institute of Graphic Arts in the 1970s. Such signs as a knife and fork for a restaurant or a telephone for a phone booth are a boon for (4) _______ a traveller who does not speak English or use the Latin alphabet. (5) _______ worldwide "languages" of this kind are musical and mathematical notation, circuit diagrams, road signs and computer icons, (6)______, again, bypass the need for words. Even a label on a garment will carry, in symbols, washing and ironing instructions. All these (7) ______ to be sufficient to their , (8)______ restricted worlds but would it really be possible to devise a universal symbolic system of communication independent of any
spoken language, culture-free and value-free, as dreamt of by the seventeenth-century philosopher Leibniz? It would seem (9) ______. Chinese and Japanese pictograms and ancient Egyptian hieroglyphics are sometimes cited as examples of such a system, yet both Japanese script and Egyptian hieroglyphics include sound-base elements and Chinese is often transliterated (10)______ romanised sound based "pin yin" script. In a word, words are inescapable. Your answers 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. Part 2. Read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (10p.) A few decades ago, entry to university meant studying a strictly academic subject -a science, or perhaps literature, a foreign language or the classics. These days, (1) ________ education establishments offer every conceivable subject from Chinese medicine to crime scene science. In Britain, this trend coincided with a dramatic increase in the (2) ________ of universities and more relaxed entry requirements, (3) ________ more students to experience tertiary education. Many feared these measures would result in a (4) ________ down of degree-level courses and the press seized every opportunity to ridicule such courses. The creation in 1999 of a bachelor’s degree in surfing studies was taken as the ultimate proof that universities were prepared to give (5)_______ in anything in an attempt to attract young people, thereby (6)_______Britain’s academic reputation. In reality, the course, run by Plymouth University in South-West England, is highly scientific, and the curriculum is (7)_______ including oceanography, meteorology, materials technology and business management. Students on this course and other seemingly more practical courses have (8) ________ performed better in tests than those doing straight science degrees. Far from having an adverse effect on higher education, these new disciplines (9)_______students and aid learning by offering the opportunity to (10)_______theoretical knowledge directly. Many of today’s graduates have a broad base of knowledge and are well placed to enter the job market. 1. A. higher B. primary C. special D. greater 2. A. amount B. number C. size D. quantity 3. A. enhancing B. benefiting C. ameliorating D. allowing 4. A. lowering B. dumbing C. detracting D. clamping 5. A. exams B. research C. degrees D. terms 6. A. messing around B. dragging on C. ruining D. cramming 7. A. forthcoming B. definite C. conducive D. demanding 8. A. virtually B. actually C. ideally D. merely 9. A. lighten B. motivate C. count towards D. grasp 10. A. apply B. wrestle C. consume D. indulge Your answers 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. Part 3: Read the following passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) according to the text. Write your answers (A, B, C or D) in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 pts) (Toefl Ibt Int 331-334/812)
The Challenge of Technology and Equity Information technology is influencing the way many of us live and work today. Wo use the Internet to look and apply for jobs, shop, conduct research make airline reservations, and explore areas of interest. We use e-mail and the Internet to communicate instantaneously with friends and business associates around the world. Computers are commonplace in homes and the workplace.
Although the number of Internet users is growing exponentially each year, most of the world's population does not have access to computers or the Internet. Only 6 percent of the population in developing countries are connected to telephones. Although more than 94 percent of U.S. households have a telephone, only 42 percent have personal computers at home and 26 percent have Internet access. The lack of what most of us would consider a basic communications necessity - the telephone - does not occur just in developing nations. On some Native American reservations only 60 percent of the residents have a telephone. The move to wireless connections may eliminate the need for telephone lines, but it does not remove the barrier to equipment costs. Who has Internet access? Fifty percent of the children in urban households with an income over $75,000 have Internet access, compared with 2 percent of the children in low-income, rural households. Nearly half of college-educated people have Internet access, compared to 6 percent of those with only some high school education. Forty percent of households with two parents have access; 15 percent of female, single-parent households do. Thirty percent of white households, 11 percent of black households, and 13 percent of Hispanic households have access. Teens and children are the two fastest-growing seg¬ments of Internet users. The digital divide between the populations who have access to the Internet and information technology tools is based on income, race, education, household type, and geographic location. Only 16 percent of the rural poor, rural and central city minorities, young householders, and singleparent female households are connected. Another problem that exacerbates these disparities is that African-Americans, Hispanics, and Native Americans hold few of the jobs in information technology. Women hold about 20 percent of these jobs and are receiving fewer than 30 percent of the computer science degrees. The result is that women and members of the most oppressed ethnic groups are not eligible for the jobs with the highest salaries at graduation. Baccalaureate candidates with degrees in computer science were offered the highest salaries of all new college graduates in 1998 at $44,949. Do similar disparities exist in schools? (A) More than 90 percent of all schools in the country are wired with at least one Internet connection. (B) The number of classrooms with Internet connections differs by the income level of students. Using the percentage of students who are eligible for free lunches at a school to determine income level, we see that nearly twice as many of the schools with more affluent students have wired classrooms as those with high concentrations of low-income students.(C) Access to computers and the Internet will be important in reducing disparities between groups.(D) It will require greater equality across diverse groups whose members develop knowledge and skills in computer and information technologies. If computers and the Internet are to be used to promote equality, they will have to become accessible to populations that cannot currently afford the equipment which needs to be updated every three years or so. However, access alone is not enough. Students will have to be interacting with the technology in authentic settings. As technology becomes a tool for learning in almost all courses taken by students, it will be seen as a means to an end rather than an end in itself. If it is used in culturally relevant ways, all students can benefit from its power. 1. Why does the author mention the telephone in paragraph 2? A. To demonstrate that even technology like the telephone is not available to all B. To argue that basic telephone service is a first step to using the Internet C. To contrast the absence of telephone usage with that of Internet usage D. To describe the development of communications from telephone to Internet 2. Which of the sentences below best expresses the information in the highlighted statement in the passage? A. Most of the people in the world use the Internet now because the number of computers has been increasing every year. B. The number of people who use computers and the Internet is increasing every year, but most people in the world still do not have connections. C. The number of computers that can make the Internet available to most of the
people in the world is not increasing fast enough. B. The Internet is available to most of the people in the world, even though they don t have their own computer terminals. 3. The word residents in the passage is closest in meaning to A. homes B. towns C. people D. locations 4. The word eliminate in the passage is closest in meaning to A. accept B. dispute C. define D. remove 5. Based on information in paragraph 3, which of the following best explains the term “digital divide?" A. The number of Internet users in developing nations B. The disparity in the opportunity to use the Internet C. Differences in socioeconomic levels among Internet users D. Segments of the population with Internet access 6. Why does the author give details about the percentages of Internet users in paragraph 3? A. To prove that there are differences in opportunities among social groups B. To argue for more Internet connections at all levels of society C. To suggest that improvements in Internet access are beginning to take place D. To explain why many people have Internet connections now 7. According to paragraph 3, which of the following households would be least likely to have access to the Internet? A. A household with one parent B. A black household C. A Hispanic household D. A household with both parents 8. The word those in the passage refers to A. classrooms B. students C. schools D. concentrations 9. According to paragraph 4, why are fewer women and minorities emplyed in this field of computer technology? A. They are not admitted to the dgree programs B. They do not possess the educational qualifications C. They do not have an interet in technology. D. They prefer traning for jobs with higher salaries. 10. What can be inferred from paragraph 6 about Internet access? A. Better computer need to be desogned. B. Schools should provide newer computers for students. C. The cost of replacing equipment is a problem. D. Technology will be more helpful in three years. Your answers 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. Part 4. Read the following passage and do the following tasks. (10p.) (IELTS testbuilder 2 107-110) A. The software tools of research are typically more abundant than hardware tools in the social sciences. Software is usually thought of as meaning computer programs that tell the hardware what to do, but any tool not related to a physical device can be considered software. Included in this category are published tests and questionnaires. B. Often researchers want to gather information related to a general area such as personality or
intelligence. For these instances, the use of a standardized test may be the best choice. With already published tests you can be sure of both validity and reliability and can save a lot of time that might otherwise be spent on test construction. Standardized tests can be classified into five main categories: achievement, aptitude, interest, personality, and intelligence. C. Achievement tests are designed specifically to measure an individual's previously learned knowledge or ability. They are available for many topic areas related to psychology, education, business, and other fields. Achievement tests require that prior learning take place and that this learning be demonstrated in order to pass. D. Aptitude tests attempt to predict an individual’s performance in some activity at some point in the future. They do not require any specific prior learning although basic knowledge related to reading and writing is usually required and some preparation, such as studying up on math formulas or sentence structure, can be helpful. A well-known example of this type is the Scholastic Achievement Test (SAT) designed to predict future college performance. E. Interest inventories also require only general knowledge but no preparation is needed. These tests look at an individual's subjective interests in order to make predictions about some future behavior or activity. Perhaps the most used interest inventory is the Strong Interest Inventory, which compares interests related to specific careers in order to help guide an individual's career path. Endorsed interests are compared with the interests of successful individuals in various fields and predictions are made regarding the test-taker's fit with the various career fields. F. Typically designed to assess and diagnose personality and mental health related disorders, personality tests are used extensively by psychologists in clinical, educational, and business related settings. By far the most widely used test of this type is the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory, Second Edition (MMPI-2), which compares an individual's responses on a series of true-false items to those suffering from various mental disorders such as depression, schizophrenia and anxiety. The theory behind the test argues that if you endorse items similar to the items endorsed by those with depression, for example, then the chances that you are also depressed increases. G. Intelligence tests could be classified as aptitude tests since they are sometimes used to predict future performance. They could also be classified as personality tests since they can be used to diagnose disorders such as learning disabilities and mental retardation. However, because of their limited scope, we will place them in their own category. The purpose of an intelligence test is to attain a summary score or intelligence quotient (IQ) of an individual's intellectual ability. Scores are compared to each other and can be broken down into different subcategories depending on the intelligence test used. The most commonly used tests of this type are the Wechsler Scales, including the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS), the Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children (WISC), and the Wechsler Preschool and Primary Scale of Intelligence (WPPSI). H. Self-response questionnaires are a great way to gather large amounts of information in a relatively short amount of time. A questionnaire, similar to a survey you might see on a web page, allows subjects to respond to questions, rate responses, or offer opinions. Their responses can then be used to place them in specific categories or groups or can be compared to other subjects for data analysis. A concern with self- report, however, is the accuracy of the responses. Unlike direct observation, there is no way of knowing if the subject has told the truth or whether or not the question was understood as intended. There are several different methods for gathering information on a questionnaire or survey, including a Likert scale, the Thurstone technique, and the semantic differential. The Likert scale is a popular method used in surveys because it allows the researcher to quantify opinion based items. Questions are typically grouped together and rated or responded to based on a five-point scale. This scale typically ranges in order from one extreme to the other, such as (1) very interested; (2) somewhat interested; (3) unsure; (4) not very interested; and (5) not interested at all. Items that might be rated with this scale representing the subject's level of interest could include a list of careers or academic majors, for example.
Choose the most suitable headings for sections A–F from the list below. Use each heading once only.Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
i. ii. iii. iv. v. vi. vii. viii. ix. x. xi. Your answer: 1. Para A: iv 4. Para E: ______
List of Headings Testing acquired knowledge The way future performance is forecast through testing The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory Software tools in research explained The use of a five-point scale in testing A test used to obtain a summary score of an individual's intelligence The method most widely used by psychologists in various situations Subjective interests employed to predict future behaviour The different classes of standardized tests The importance of prior learning in tests Information gathered by self-reporting
1. Para B: ______ 5. Para F: ______
2. Para C: ______ 6. Para G: ______
3. Para D: ______ 7. Para H: ______
For questions 8-10, do the following statements agree with the views of the writer? Write: YES if the statement agrees with the writer NO if the statement does not agree with the writer NOT GIVEN if there is no information about this in the passageMACROBUTTON HTMLDirect 8. The Wechsler Scales are the only type of intelligence test now used. 9. Where large quantities of data need to be collected fairly quickly self-response questionnaires work well. 10. The Likert Scales ensures greater accuracy than other techniques. Your answers 1. 2. 3. Part 5: You are going to read an article containing reviews of computer games. Choose from the reviews (A-E). The reviews may be chosen more than once. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (15 pts) (Advanced trainer- 6 practice tests – Felicity O’Dell) THE LATEST COMPUTER GAMES Read the reviews of this week’s game releases. A. Last year’s Motor Racers left me a little underwhelmed. After the impressive heights of their earlier Formula One Game, which is replaced, the lesser-powered vehicles and disappointing graphics felt like a bit of step back for the developers. But this year’ update has added a considerable amount of extra content. You can choose to control more or less any type of car that you wish. The driving model is solid, letting the player experience what it’s really like to drive round most of the world’s most famous racing tracks. That includes practice laps and men at the side of the track waving flags to alert you of crash up ahead. There are half a dozen new tracks to choose from. Noodsberg is perhaps the best addition,
offering some picturesque street racing action. The graphics have generally improved but there is still something lacking. The car throws really unnatural shadows and when I got a puncture, the car just sunk into the ground on that side, rather than the tyre being deflated. B. Many people might imagine that rail simulators are dull. Might you even think the idea of recreating a largely event-free one-dimensional journey is absurd? Well, they have actually made a game just like that. Your first hour in Rail Game might run like this: you jump in, expecting an in-game tutorial, and utterly fail to move anything, So, after 20 minutes of turning your wipers on and off, you are forced into reading the manual. And that’s the biggest disappointment. It tells you how to get moving, but when it comes to the expert controls on a steam engine, the game and the manual assume you already know quite a lot about locomotive operation. When on earth should I ‘inject water’ , eh? I don’t drive steam trains for a living. However, persevered and once I eventually got more or less to grips with it, I decided I actually quite like Rail Game. I took a simple pleasure, for example, in constructing a track running around my own name. It’s inexplicable satisfying and therapeutic experience. C. Rally Rider takes a different approach to the racing genre by abandon smooth roads and sports cars in favor of heavy suspensions and cross-country courses. The genes stands out because of its tracks; it offers six very different ones each with enough bumps and turn to make cars spin like they are in a washing machine. These courses are unfriendly enough, but when they are being approached at speeds nearing 150kph they are downright dangerous. Going too fast when hitting a hill or even just going into a bump at wrong angle is like to send a car flying into the air, possibly onto its roof. It means the game has to be played with care because screaming round corners at full speed will cause a time-consuming crash. Looks-wise the game is a mixed bag. Tracks look good on the move, but as soon as the action slows down or stops and a closer inspection is taken, the surrounding start to look like you are travelling through a rather simply frown child’s picture book. D. Star travel is set a distance future, when humans start to explore and colonize space. Inevitably, mankind stumbles across alien races and rather than everyone trying to get to know each other in a friendly , civilized fashion, war breaks out. There are 30 pre-set campaigns to choose from, each with its own goals and problems. There are 16 races which you can select. In order to succeed in any campaign, you must not only defend the star systems under your rule, but expand to the other ones as well. One of this game’s best features is that you can construct ships to your own specifications, which adds extra element to your strategy. For example, against some enemies, you will need to concentrate on building a few highly powerful ships, instead of trying to outman them. On the whole, it’s an amusing if uninspired strategy game, and if you are a fan of the game, it should provide you with several weeks of entertainment. E. Wonder Racer succeeds in bringing the body-breaking speed of time-trial biking to the PC, but its difficulty may leave you shaking. The approach is simple and unsophisticated. There are only three controls, far fewer than in many other modern games. Players start by selecting one of sixteen riders, from a set of teams. There are six tracks, of which three are available at the outset. Only by scoring gold in both classes on all of these can you gain access to the next three, and so on. The courses are a fictitious mix of country lanes, exotic beaches and snowy mountain passes. The 3D is excellent in its speed, smoothness, and level of detail. A selection of viewpoints, including a breakneck ‘biker’s eye view’ are offered . This game will punish your skills and patience to the limit. About which of the games is the following stated?
Your answers
The impression given by the graphics depends on the speed of your vehicle
1
……….
It will keep people who like this kind of game occupied for some time
2
……….
It is possible to personalize the location for the game
3
……….
You can go to some locations when you have been successful at a task.
4
……….
It is an improved version of an earlier game
5
……….
It is an easy game to learn
6
……….
You need to use skill to avoid an accident
7
……….
Some of the details of the visual effects are not realistic
8
……….
The concept doesn’t sound very exciting
9
……….
What you have to achieve varies depending on the options you choose
10
……….
SECTION IV. WRITING (60 points) Part 2: CHART DESCRIPTION (15 pts) The chart shows the end of year value for four major international money market indices in 2005, 2006, 2007 and 2008. [FTSE100= UK Market Index, Dow Jones= US Market Index, KOSPI= Korean Market Index, CAC= French market Index] Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make comparisons where relevant.
19.
CHUYÊN BIÊN HÒA - HÀ NAM
SECTION ONE: LISTENING (50 POINTS) Part 1: For question 1-5, listen to the recording and decide whether the following statements are true (T) or false (F). Write your answers in the corresponding boxes provided. (10 points) 1. Although diversity is being dealt with, it is still an important concern for employers. 2. A growing number of people are suing employers because they feel discriminated against because of their age. 3. Insurance to cover discrimination claims is an enormous cost for companies. 4. Security firms sometimes discriminate against people because of their age. 5. Employers cannot discriminate against job applicants who have been convicted of any crime. Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Part 2: For question 6-10, you will hear a student called Mara Barnes giving a presentation about the language of the Piraha people who live in the Amazon basin. Answer the following questions with NO MORE THAN FIVE WORDS. Write your answers in the space provided. (10 points)
6.According to Mara, why isn’t the language of the Piraha under imminent threat? ……………………………………………………………………………………………… 7. According to Professor Everrett, what idea does the Piraha language have no words for? ……………………………………………………………………………………………… 8. What part of speech of the Piraha language is thought to have originated in another local language? ……………………………………………………………………………………………… 9. According to Mara, what does the Piraha language sound like? ……………………………………………………………………………………………… 10. What expression does Mara use to describe her attitude towards Professor Everett’s theory of language? ……………………………………………………………………………………………… Part 3: For questions 11–15, you will hear two sports commentators called Heidi Stokes and Rob Aslett taking part in a discussion on the subject of gyms. Choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. Write your answers in the corresponding boxes provided. (10 points) 11. What do Rob and Heidi think about government proposals regarding the problem of obesity? A. They over-emphasise the role of dietary factors. B.They represent a radical solution that must be worth trying. C.They over-estimate the extent to which the fitness industry can help. D.They are attempting to accommodate too many varied perspectives. 12. Heidi agrees with the suggestion that regular gym attendance A. can discourage people from keeping fit in other ways. B. may lead to obsessive behaviour in some cases. C. generally forms the basis of a healthy lifestyle. D. could be harder to keep up in rural areas. 13. When asked about motivation, Rob suggests that many gym clients lose interest A. if they don’t get good value for money. B. if they don’t find it enjoyable on a social level. C. if they don’t make it part of a wider fitness regime. D. if they don’t perceive real gains in personal fitness. 14. What does Heidi suggest about membership levels in gyms? A. The best ones restrict access at peak times. B. Most recruit more people than they can cope with. C. It is impossible to predict demand with any accuracy. D. Over-recruitment can be counter-productive in the long run. 15. Rob thinks the key to successful gym marketing lies in
A. remaining true to the core values of fitness and strength. B. appealing to a wide cross-section of the population. C. joining forces with providers of related activities. D. specialising in the needs of certain key groups. Your answers: 11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
SECTION TWO: LEXICO – GRAMMAR (30 POINTS) Part 1: Choose the correct answer to each of the following questions. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (10 points) 1. Demand for the product is expected to peak five years from now and then to ____. A. taper off
B. fall down
C. set back
D. drift away
2. Alan's photo was slightly too large for the frame so he decided to ____ it. A. hack
B. chop
C. slice
D. trim
3. Although the patient received intensive treatment, there was no ____ improvement in her condition. A. decipherable
B. legible
C. discernible
D. intelligible
4. Lack of sleep over the last few months is finally ____ Jane. A. coming over
B. getting on with
C. putting on
D. catching up with
5. During the evening football match the stadium was illuminated by ____. A. spotlights
B. flashlights
C. highlights
D. floodlights
6. Members of the aristocracy don’t ____ a great deal of power nowadays. A. practice
B. wield
C. sway
D. manage
7. I heard ____ that Jack has been dropped from the basketball team. A. in the woods
B. on the grapevine
C. under your feet
D. on the olive branch
8. The weekend is over, so tomorrow morning, it’s back to the ____. A. grind
B. labor
C. drudgery
D. toil
9. Unsalted butter is best for this recipe, but ____, margarine will do. A. except that
B. for all of which
C. failing that
D. given that
10. Those men were appointed by the directors and are ____ only to them. A. dependable
B. privileged
C. controlled
D. accountable
Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
Part 3: Fill in each blank with a suitable preposition. Write your answers in the box below. (5 points)
1. The judge reminded the witness that he was still ____ oath. 2. I’m not partial ____ mushrooms. 3. He had an aversion ____ getting up early. 4. The thing I don’t like about my present job is that we often have to work up to ten hours ____ a stretch. 5. ____ gum, you are right! Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Part 4: Write the correct form of each bracketed word in the numbered space below. (10 points) The (1. come) of (2. deceive) and the proof of (3. gullible), fakes are among the least loved and most elusive products of the market in relics of the past. Makers and buyers are generally united in a (4. conspire) of silence, the one to escape the penalties of wrong doing, the other to preserve his own reputation, and that of the market as a whole. Occasionally fakes are caught in a brief blaze of (5. famous), but even then they generally disappear, hastily disposed of by the collector, dealer or curator caught in possession. For this reason it tends to be the museums and galleries that do not practise disposal which have the best collections of fakes. The general (6. visible) of fakes is regrettable, for, if (7. moral) and embarrassing, fakes are also entertaining and (8. inform). As the products of endlessly varied (9.genuine), they reach the heights of imagination and technical (10. virtuoso). Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
SECTION THREE: READING (60 POINTS) Part 1: Read the text and choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to fill in each blank. Write your answers in the box below. (10 points) Ask anyone over forty to make a comparison between the past and the present and nine out of ten people will tell you that things have been getting (1) ____ worse for as long as they can remember. Take the weather for example, which has been behaving rather strangely lately. Everyone remembers that in their childhood the summers were (2) ____ hotter, and that winter always included (3) ____ falls of snow just when the school holidays had started. Of course, the food in those days was far superior too, as nothing was imported and everything was fresh. Unemployment was (4) ____, the pound really was worth something, and you could buy a (5) ____ house even if your means were limited. And above all, people were (6) ____ better in those days, far more friendly, not inclined to crime or violence, and spent their free time making model boats and tending their stamp collections rather than gazing at the television
screen for hours on end. As we know that this picture of the past (7) ____ cannot be true, and there are plenty of statistics dealing with health and prosperity which prove that it is not true, why is it that we all have a (8) ____ to idealize the past? Is it simply nostalgia? Or is it rather that we need to believe in an image of the world which is (9) ____ the opposite of what we see around us? Whichever it is, at least it leaves us with a nagging feeling that the present could be better, and perhaps (10) ____ us to be a little more critical about the way we live. 1. A. so
B. especially
C. virtually
D. steadily
2. A. at least
B. considerably
C. not only
D. rarely
3. A. abundant
B. lavish
C. bulky
D. prolific
4. A. petty
B. miniature
C. negligible
D. trivial
5. A. middling
B. sizeable
C. medium
D. voluminous
6. A. whatsoever
B. notwithstanding
C. hitherto
D. somehow
7. A. simply
B. hardly
C. even
D. specifically
8. A. habit
B. custom
C. tendency
D. practice
9. A. widely
B. quite
C. utterly
D. rather
10. A. reassures
B. supports
C. makes
D. encourages
Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
Part 2: Fill in each numbered blank with a suitable word to complete the following text. Write your answers in the box below. (15 points) Pompeii had been a Roman commercial centre situated some ten kilometres from Mount Vesuvius. It was a beautiful and prosperous town. None of its (1) ____ were worried about the volcano because it was considered to be extinct. There were no records of an (2) ____ in existence. Meanwhile, beautiful grapevines grew up on the sides of the mountain in abundance. There were warnings of impending volcanic activity, but the inhabitants did not seem to (3) ____ heed of them. Previously, there had been a violent local earthquake with minor earthquakes following for the next several years. We know that earth tremors are predictive of (4) ____ volcanic eruption. The Romans in Pompeii, however, did not seem to sense the danger that was approaching them. Probably the first written eye witness account in history of a (5) ____ eruption was noted in a letter. It described how a great cloud rose from Mount Vesuvius at about noon on the 24th of August 79 A.D. Pompeii was covered by falling ash. We know (6) ____ what people were doing when they were caught by this disaster. This is because they were mummified by the hot lava that flowed down the mountainside and (7) ____ the surrounding land. Most of the people were running away, trying to escape, when the lava caught them, but others were caught as they went about their (8) ____ work. A dog was mummified in the lava. It was curled up asleep on that day so long ago.
In one short afternoon, the (9) ____ town of Pompeii was reduced to ruins. The (10) ____ would not have been so enormous if the Romans of the district had only known how to interpret the signs. Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
Part 3: Read the following passages and choose the best answer for each for the questions below. (10 points)
DESERT PLANTS On the surface, a desert appears to be one of the harshest environments on Earth yet a remarkable variety or plants have adapted to thrive in this dry climate. Despite their origins in different locations around the globe, desert plants have developed similar strategies for surviving in arid environments. Some plants have adapted in such a way that it is hard to tell them apart, even though they belong to very different biological families. One evolution of certain survival strategies, which are shared across geographic and biological boundaries. In general, the survival strategies of desert plants can be divided into two kinds: adaptation for quick use of ephemeral resources ( “maximum variance behavior”) and adaptation for the best use of poor but more permanent resources (“minimum variance behavior”). The former strategy involves adaptation to environmental changes, such as seasonal availability of water. This is observed in desert annuals and perennials alike. Such plants tend to grow rapidly and produce many seeds under the right conditions. The patter strategy involves adaptation to the worst possible conditions, which can be seen in succulents, true xerophytes, and grasses. These plants usually grow slowly, use water efficiently, and exhibit passive cooling. Water scarcity and heat are the key factors limiting the survival of desert plants. Plants that have adapted to the worst possible conditions have evolved ways for quickly acquiring and storing water to ensure their survival. Depending on strategies and physical adaptations, they can be divided into either succulents or drought-resistant plants. for the most part, succulents have evolved extensive, shallow root systems to quickly absorb water during brief periods of heavy rainfall. Water is then stored in the fleshy tissue of their thick trunks or lobes, as well as in the roots. The cactus is a good example of a succulent. To retain water, succulents have waxy coatings on their skin and a modified system of respiration. The stomata (surface pores), through which the plant takes in carbon dioxide and releases oxygen, open only at night when temperatures are cooler and less water from the plant will evaporate. Unlike most other plants, a succulent stores all or most of its chlorophyll, the chemical essential to photosynthesis, in its stem, skin, or other outer tissues, rather than concentrating it in the leaves. Doing this places it in a strong, well-watered part of the plant, rather than in an appendage susceptible to drying out and dropping off.
Drought-resistant plants, or xerophytes, come in many form including true xerophytes, deciduous plants, and grasses. Xerophytic shrubs, such as the five species of creosote bush , are the most abundant type of vegetation in most arid environments. They are able to withstand desiccation in severe droughts without dying . Some have evolved small leaves with special coatings to reduce loss of water through evaporation. Others have replaces leaves with thorns or spines. While succulent roots form shallow, dense webs, xerophytes tend to develop deep root networks that pull water out of soil other desert plants cannot reach. For example, the roots of the mesquite bush, said to have the deepest root systems among desert plants, can reach depths of up to eighty feet. Succulents and xerophytes, on one hand, have physically adapted to gather and retain water to survive long periods of drought. Drought - avoiding plants, on the other hand, escape unfavorable conditions by perishing. These include annuals and perennials. Because profuse seed development is crucial to the survival of most annual species, they tend to produce far more flowers than other types of desert plants. The desert marigold of the American southwest, for example, has adapted to seasonal changes in rainfall by growing rapidly, bursting into a brilliant display of yellow flowers, and then dropping a cascade of seeds before dying. In some cases, annuals complete their entire life cycle in a matter of a few weeks or months. Their seeds may remain inactive for up to ten years while waiting for wetter conditions. Perennials, such as the ocotillo, may go dormant during dry periods, spring to life when it rains, and then return to dormancy in a process that may occur up to five times per year. 1. According to paragraph 1, which of the following is true of desert plants? A. They are hard to see in the harsh desert landscape B. They have evolved similar features, regardless of geographic origins C. They have evolved from different families that exchanged survival strategies D. They all look essentially the same. 2. The word ephemeral in the passage is closest in meaning to ___________. A. minimal
B. yearly
C. short- lived
D. abundant
3. The word respiration in the passage is closest in meaning to___________. A. nutrition
B. breathing C. growing
D. coloration
4. Why does the author mention the action of stomata in the passage? A. to explain how chlorophyll works B. To emphasize a unique adaptation of succulents C. To illustrate that cacti have no leaves. D. To describe the basic parts of a succulent 5. The word desiccation in the passage is closest in meaning to __________. A. destruction
B. growth
C. adaptation
D. drying
6. The word others in the passage refers to ___________. A. grasses
B. shrubs
C. coatings
D. leaves
7. Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence in the passage? Incorrect choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential information. A. At the same time that xerophytes evolved their thick webs of low-lying roots, succulents formed thin networks to reach surface water. B. Both succulents and xerophytes form long, dense networks of roots in order to reach water within the soil that non-developed plants could not reach. C. Because of their long roots systems developed to reach water deep within the soil, xerophytes have become more dominant in desert environments than succulents D. In contrast to xerophytes, which produce long root systems to tap water deep within the soil, succulents develop a thick web of roots just below the soil surface. 8. According to paragraph 4, thorns on xerophytes____________. A. are similar to blades of grass. B. can reach water very far underground C. are what some plants have instead of leaves D. help keep the plants from being eaten by animals 9. In what form do drought - avoiding annuals wait for wetter weather? A. stems
B. flowers
C. roots
D. seeds
10. According to the author, all of the following are associated with plants that exhibit “minimum variance behavior” EXCEPT A. slow growth
B. modified respiration
C. rapid seed production
D. deep root systems
Part 4: Read the passage and do the tasks that follow. (10 points) Organic farming and chemical fertilizers A. The world’s population continues to climb. And despite the rise of high-tech agriculture,800 million people don’t get enough to eat. Clearly it’s time to rethink the food we eat and where it comes from. Feeding 9 billion people will take more than the same old farming practices, especially if we want to do it without felling rainforests and planting every last scrap of prairie. Finding food for all those people will tax predicting farmers’-and researchers’-ingenuity to the limit. Yet already, precious aquifers that provide irrigation water for some of the world’s most productive farmlands are drying up or filled with seawater, and arable land in China is eroding to create vast dust storms that redden sunsets as far away as North America. “Agriculture must become the solution to environmental problems in 50 years. If we don’t have systems that make the environment better not just hold the fort-then we’re in trouble,” says Kenneth Cassman, an agronomist at the University of Nebraska at Lincoln. That view was echoed in January bythe Curry report, a government panel that surveyed the future of farming and food inBritain. B. It’s easy to say agriculture has to do better, but what should this friendly farming of the future look like? Concerned consumers come up short at this point, facing what appears to be an ever-widening
ideological divide. In one corner are the techno-optimists whoput their faith in genetically modified crops, improved agrochemicals and computer enhanced machinery; in the other are advocates of organic farming, who reject artificial chemicals and embrace back-to-nature techniques such as composting. Bothsides cite plausible science to back their claims to the moral high ground, and both bring enoughpassion to the debate for many people to come away thinking we’re faced with a starkbetween two mutually incompatible options. C. Not so. If you take off the ideological blinkers and simply ask how the world can produce the food it needs with the least environmental cost, a new middle way opens.The key is sustainability: whatever we do must not destroy the capital of soil and water we need to keep on producing. Like today’s organic farming, the intelligent farming of the future should pay much more attention to the health of its soil and the ecosystem it's part of. But intelligent farming should also make shrewd and locally appropriate use of chemical fertilisers and pesticides. The most crucial ingredient in this new style of agriculture is not chemicals but information about what’s happening in each field and how to respond. Yet ironically, this key element may be the most neglected today. D. Clearly, organic farming has all the warm, fuzzy sentiment on its side. An approach that eschews synthetic chemicals surely runs no risk of poisoning land and water. And its emphasis on building up natural ecosystems seems to be good for everyone. Perhaps these easy assumptions explain why sales of organic food across Europe are increasing by at least 50 per cent per year. E. Going organic sounds idyllic-but it’s naive, too. Organic agriculture has its own suite of environmental costs, which can be worse than those of conventional farming, especially if it were to become the world norm. But more fundamentally, the organic versus chemical debate focuses on the wrong question. The Issue isn’t what you put into a farm,but what you get out of it, both in terms of crop yields and pollutants, and what condition the farm is in when you’re done. F. Take chemical fertilisers, which deliver nitrogen, an essential plant nutrient, to crops along with some phosphorus and potassium. It is a mantra of organic farming that these fertilisers are unwholesome, and plant nutrients must come from natural sources. But in fact the main environmental damage done by chemical fertilisers as opposed to any other kind is through greenhouse gases-carbon dioxide from the fossil fuels used in their synthesis and nitrogen oxides released by their degradation. Excess nitrogen from chemical fertilisers can pollute groundwater, but so can excess nitrogen from organic manures. G. On the other hand, relying solely on chemical fertilisers to provide soil nutrients without doing other things to build healthy soil is damaging. Organic farmers don’t use chemical fertilisers, so they are very good at building soil fertility by working crop residues and manure into the soil, rotating with legumes that fix atmospheric nitrogen, and other techniques. H. This generates vital soil nutrients and also creates a soil that is richer in organic matter,so it retains nutrients better and is hospitable to the crop’s roots and creatures such asearthworms that help maintain
soil fertility. Such soil also holds water better and thereforemakes more efficient use of both rainfall and irrigation water. And organic matter ties upC02 in the soil, helping to offset emissions from burning fossil fuels and reduce global warming. I. Advocates of organic farming like to point out that fields managed in this way canproduce yields just as high as fields juiced up with synthetic fertilisers. For example, BillLiebhardt, research manager at the Rodale Institute in Kutztown, Pennsylvania recently compiled the results of such comparisons for corn, wheat, soybeans and tomatoes in theUS and found that the organic fields averaged between 94 and 100 percent of the yields of nearby conventional crops. J. But this optimistic picture tells only half the story. Farmers can’t grow such crops every year if they want to maintain or build soil nutrients without synthetic fertilisers. They needto alternate with soil-building crops such as pasture grasses and legumes such as alfalfa.So in the long term, the yield of staple grains such as wheat, rice and com must go down.This is the biggest cost of organic farming. Vaclav Smil of the University of Manitoba in Winnipeg, Canada, estimates that if farmers worldwide gave up the 80 million tonnes of synthetic fertilizers they now use each year, total grain production would fall by at least half. Either farmers would have to double the amount of land they cultivate- a catastrophic cost to natural habitat-or billions of people would starve. K. That doesn’t mean farmers couldn’t get by with less fertilizer. Technologically advanced farmers in wealthy countries, for instance, can now monitor their yields hectare by hectares, or even more finely, throughout a huge field. They can then target their fertilizer to the parts of the field where it will do the most good, instead of responding to average conditions. This increases yield and decreases fertiliser use. Eventually, farmers may - incorporate long-term weather forecasts into their planning as well, so that they can cut back on fertiliser use when the weather is likely to make harvests poor anyway, says Ron Olson, an agronomist with CargillFertilizer in Tampa, Florida. L. Organic techniques certainly have their benefits, especially for poor farmers. Butstric”organic agriculture”, which prohibits certain technologies and allows others, isn't always better for the environment. Take herbicides, for example. These can leach into waterways and poison both wildlife and people. Just last month, researchers led by TyroneHayes at the University of California at Berkeley found that even low concentrations of atrazine, the most commonly used weedkiller in the US, can prevent frog tadpoles from developing properly. Questions 1 – 5 Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage. In boxes, write YES if the statement agrees with the information NO if the statement contradicts the information NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this 1. Increasing population, draining irrigation, eroding farmland push agricultural industry to extremity.
2. There are only two options for farmers; they use chemical fertiliser or natural approach. 3. Chemical fertilizers currently are more expensive than the natural fertilisers. 4. In order to keep nutrient in the soil, organic farmers need to rotate planting method. 5. “Organic agriculture” is the way that environment-damaging technologies are all strictly forbidden. Questions 6-10 Complete the following summary of the paragraphs of Reading Passage, using no more than two words from the Reading Passage for each answer. Write your answers in boxes. Several(6)………………approaches need to be applied in order that global population wouldn’t go starved. A team called (7)…………………repeated the viewpoint of a scholar by a survey in British farming. More and more (8)…………………believe in(9)………………… farming these years. The argument of organic against (10)……………… seems in an inaccurate direction. Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
Part 5: Read the text, identify which section A–F each of the following is mentioned. Write ONE letter A–F in the corresponding numbered space provided. Each letter may be used more than once. (15 points)
Book Reviews on Earth exploration A. Complete Guide to Life in a Cold Climate by Richard Sale This book is packed with information and deserves to be the ultimate Arctic wildlife guide for a long time to come. lt begins well, with an introduction to Arctic geology, climate and habitats, an overview of all the people living and working in the region. The ulk of the book is an extensive field guide to Arctic birds and mammals, with distribution maps and information on confusing species. Its scope is broad and generous, but I have a few niggles. lt should really include Arctic plants, fish and invertebrates. This would have doubled the size of the book and made it unwieldy and impractical, but it's fair to say that the title is misading. But I'm being picky here, and these minor shortcomings don't detract from the overall value of the book. B. Burton Holmes Travelogues Burton Holmes was the greatest traveller not just of his own time but perhaps of all time. A pretty big claim, but there's evidence to back it up. Over a 60-year period, Holmes visited nearly every country on the planet, photographed all he saw, and invented the term 'travelogue'. His pictures are stunning, both as social history and as art. Holmes photographed everything: the dead on battlelds; the running of bulls in Spain; a mule train in Death Valley. A sequence of Vesuvius erupting in 1906 includes a shot of a woman under an ash-strewn sky that is positively apocalyptic, but Holmes' work wasn't restricted to the large canvas - he was as capable of capturing an
intimate portrait of a chicken vendor in a Bangkok market as he was revealing the vastness and intricacy of the construction of the Panama Canal. C. No More Beyond by Simon Nasht In Simon Nasht's brilliant biography of Sir Hubert Wilkins, he says that his subject isn't like other great explorers, primarily because most of us have never heard of him. He had no lust for fame, instead being driven by athirst that led him to remote environments and places that cried out for exploration, rather than awards the popular challenges so desired by newspaper editors of the day. Nasht couldn't believe "a man could achieve so muchand yet be so little remembered." In 1917 Wilkins was under the command of veteran polar explorer and photographer Frank Hurley in the Australian Flying Corps. Their mutual interests were vital to the development of aerial photography as an integral partof modern geography. D.Farmland Wildlife by James McCallum As a refuge for wildlife, British farmland has had a bad press in recent years. Fortunately, the artist's beautiful visual journey through the seasons presented in this book reveals that there is still an abundance of wildlife if you know where to look for it and what to look for. McCallum shuns detailed portraiture in favour of sketches capturing the spirit of his subjects-and hooray for that. If I need precise anatomical detail, I can look at a photograph. But if I want to grasp how a stoat rolls an egg, how a male whitethroat makes his fluttering display-flights or how long-tailed tit* work together to build their nests, then I need something more-and McCallum is stunningly good at translating these complex movements and behaviours onto the page.His simple explanatory captions-taken from his field notebook-are a bonus. E. Troubled Waters by Sarah Lazarus Sometimes it seems as though the size of books on whales is led by the size of the subject matter. This, however, is a small, readable book. There are no detailed species accounts and the text is almost entirely devoted to the threats that whales and dolphins face, such as chemical and noise pollution, ship strikes and entanglement in fishing nets. A careful read reveals factual errors but, on the whole, these do not affect the thoughtful and concise discussion. lt is notoriously difficult to get to the bottom of the whaling issue, and here Lazarus struggles a bit. The International Whaling Commission comes in for a lot of criticism, which would perhaps have been better directed at the three of its members who have chosen not to abide by the spirit of its conservation decisions. F. The High Lowlands by Derek Ratcliffes For some, the south of Scotland is the plainer and less charismatic sibling of the breathtaking Highlands and the rugged West Coast. But it's every bit as wild as those famed areas, but with a gentler appeal. This book describes an unexpected Eden, a place whose heart pulses to a different beat. This is an epic piece of writing, its subject matter covered in a manner more akinto the journals of a Victorian chronicler than a modern natural history book. Derek Ratcliffe's recordings of the natural goings-ons in this lonely land spanned 50 years. His intimacy is apparent on every page. Everything is catalogued and described in meticulous detail, and few questions are left unanswered. It's a great pity that Derek did not live to see
his life's work in print. This is a book for everyone, but it's a huge volume that you couldn't take with you on holiday unless you've got a pretty hefty rucksack and a strong back. Your answers Someone who left almost no stone unturned around the world.
1. _______
The surprising anonymity of someone.
2. _______
Disappointment that flora and other fauna are not mentioned.
3. _______
A book that is physically difficult to carry around with you.
4. _______
Some details are inaccurate in this book.
5. _______
Information written like an old-fashioned diary.
6. _______
Text that adds something to the images.
7. _______
A collaboration that produced great results.
8. _______
A book that covers all of nature's seasons.
9. _______
A wide variety of subject matter.
10. _______
22.
CHUYÊN LÊ HỒNG PHONG - NAM ĐỊNH
Part 1. For question 1-5, listen to an interview with Sue Millins, who has recently introduced a new teaching approach into her school and decide whether the following statements are true (T) or false (F). Write your answers in the corresponding boxes provided. (1.0 pt) 1. The original cause of the school’s decline was the transformation of the neighborhood. 2. The school was not closed down thanks to the decision to follow the national curriculum. 3. The traditional methods of teaching were abandoned because tests would be easier to mark. 4. The aim of the lesson involving the bear is to help the children to read and write. 5. The method is considered successful because children are interested in the arts. Your answers 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Part 2: For question 6-10, you will hear a talk by a woman called Jean who visited some traditional North American events, a cowboy rodeo and a Native American powwow. Answer the following questions with NO MORE THAN FIVE WORDS. Write your answers in the space provided. (1.0 pt) 6. To whom did the organizers express their gratitude at the starting ceremony for the rodeo?
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…….
7. Which term was used to refer to the helper riders? ………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…….
8. Which marked the end of the powwow? ………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…….
9. What made the sound Jean enjoyed on the Jingle dancer’s dresses? ………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…….
10. What must have been added to one competitor’s costume? ………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…….
Part 3: For questions 11-15, listen to the discussion on a current affairs program between Nick Barnes and Alison Tempra about the performance of the company Facebook since it floated on the stock exchange, hosted by Emily Dunne. Choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. Write your answers in the corresponding boxes provided. (1.0 pt) 11. What does Alison think is cause for optimism? A. the company kept its costs low B. the loss generated was less than expected C. there appears to be good revenue potential D. the company hasn’t started to advertise yet 12. According to Nick, the increasing popularity of smaller devices A. represents untapped potential for Facebook. B. is a significant challenge to Facebook increasing its revenue. C. puts Facebook at a competitive advantage. D. gives the company an opportunity to advertise more. 13. In what situation does Alison believe Facebook users might abandon the company? A. if they are given the option of watching adverts on certain apps and sites B. if a free social network becomes available on the net C. if the company pushes advertisem*nts onto users too forcefully D. if sites and apps start to appear which put users off using Facebook 14. What do we learn about the company’s performance? A. the share price has now dropped by over one-third B. there has been a 6% improvement in the share price C. $38 has been wiped off the share price D. it has become the biggest flop in history 15. Nick believes that Google A. will inevitably prevail over Facebook in time. B. was short-sighted to invest everything it had into one project.
C. technology will be made redundant by what Facebook offers users. D. will become profit-making in a matter of time. Your answers 11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
B. LEXICO AND GRAMMAR (3.0 pts) Part 1: Choose the answer A, B, C, or D that best completes each of the following sentences. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (1.0 pt) 1. The day their first child was born, the new parents were ______ with joy. A. overpowered
B. overtaken
C. overthrown
D. overcome
2. He was in the ______ of despair when he heard that his mother was leaving him. A. abyss
B. pits
C. valley
D. depths
C. somewhat
D. utterly
3. She is usually ______ courteous to strangers. A. absolutely
B. exceedingly
4. Many people no longer trust their own ______ memories and commit every detail of their lives to some digital device or other and are completely lost without it. A. controllable
B. susceptible
C. vulnerable
D. fallible
5. I am not surprised their marriage is on ______. They are the most incompatible couple I know. A. a razor edge
B. the rocks
C. broken wings
D. a roll
6. Her parents died when she was a baby, so I ______ family she ever had. A. was all the
B. was the whole
C. was nothing but the
D. was everything of the
7. - Nadine: “I’ve been offered $550 for my stereo. Should I take it or wait for a better one?” - Kitty: “Take the $550. ______.” A. Actions speak louder than words.
B. Kill two birds with one stone.
C. The early bird catches the worm.
D. A bird in the hand is worth two in the bush.
8. We do not have a secretary ______, but we do have a student who comes in to do a bit of filing. A. as such
B. the least bit
C. whatsoever
D. little more
9. The experimental play was only a ______ success, which disappointed the playwright. A. local
B. qualified
C. reserved
D. cautious
10. The police have been ______ the district for the murderer, leaving no stone unturned. A. brainwashing
B. penetrating
C. ransacking
D. scouring
Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
Part 2: The passage below contains 5 mistakes. Identify the mistakes and write the corrections in the corresponding numbered boxes. There is an example at the beginning. (0.5 pt) Line
THE HILLS ARE ALIVE WITH THE SOUND OF MUSIC
1
For the past eight years, many of the world’s leading classical musician have gathered together in Switzerland’s most glitzy ski resort to play, to teach and socialise. If this were all, it would be the ultimate classical music insiders’ club. But the attraction of Verbier, its charm and relevance, is that it is also home for three weeks to more than 100 young musicians from 31 countries, starried-eyed about meeting the
5
masters and getting a crashing course at the highest possible level. Conducts of the world’s top orchestras are on hand to get the young musicians into shape, coaxing fine performances of such daunting challenges like Mahler’s Third Symphony and Brahms’ First Symphony. 10
Verbier is the creation of the Swede, Matin Engstroem, who for many years was a leading agent. He wanted to run his own festival and, having some of the best contacts in the business, it was not hard to find a Swiss ski report to look for summer boost, rich villa owners keen to open their houses to musical celebrities and stars used to being indulged.
Your answers: 0.
Line
Mistake
Correction
1
musician
musicians
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Part 3. Complete each of the following sentences with a suitable preposition or particle. Write your answers in the space provided. (0.5 pt) 1. Clever people never bite _________ more than they can chew. 2. Remember to ice _________ the champagne for the party. 3. He does not think that his salary is _________ the par with his position in the company. 4. He went _________ his own accord: nobody forced him to go. 5. When she was at school, she used to beaver _________ at her homework as soon as she got home from school.
Your answers 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Part 4: Give the correct form of each bracketed word in the following passage. Write your answers in the space provided. (1.0 pt) GOOD VIBRATIONS The woman twists and contorts her body, wheeling and spinning (1. SPECTACLE) __________ across the room, her voice rising in (2. ECSTASY) __________ whoops and yells then dropping to mournful moans and grunts before she collapses in a heap on the floor. And then it's my turn. I came here seeking a brief escape from the stresses and strains of everyday modern life. But right now my (3. INSTINCT) __________ stress flight response is in full throttle and urging me to sprint for the door, run like hell, anything rather than stand up and perform spontaneous singing and dancing in front of a rather forbidding (4. SORT) __________ of complete strangers. But there is no graceful way out. And something about the trance-like beat of the African drums, the (5. EARTH) __________ hum of the harmonium, combined with the soothing candle-lit glow of the room and - perhaps most of all – the serene (6. ASSURE) __________ of our teacher compels me to stay put. This is natural voice therapy. The workshops are meant to release hidden emotions and anxieties, and promote relaxation and mental healing through singing. Using a mixture of mantra, Sanskrit chanting, Indian scales and pure (7. PROVIDE) __________, coupled with movement and balance drawn from various cultures, the aim is to 'free the inner voice'. Of course, singing is already natural to most of us. We all know the (8. LIFT) __________ boost of singing in harmony with others, while hearing the blues can evoke grief in anyone. But is there more to singing than this (9. TRANSIT) __________ change of mood? Slade, a professional singer and actress who took up voice therapy 10 years ago, believes the voice is the key to good mental health. And while the idea may sound a bit kooky, she is fast winning (9. CLAIM) __________ for her work from mainstream psychiatrists and mental health organizations. (adapted from “Good vibrations” by Wendy Moore, the Guardian) Your answers 1.
6.
2.
7.
3.
8.
4.
9.
5.
10.
III. READING (6.0 pts):
Part 1. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (1.0 pt) Disruptive technologies are now dictating our future, as new innovations increasingly (1) _______ the lines between physical, digital and biological realms. Robots are already in our operating rooms and fast-food restaurants; we can now use 3D imaging and stem-cell (2) _______ to grow human bones from a patient's own cells; and 3D printing is creating a circular economy in which we can use and then reuse raw materials. This (3) _______ of technological innovation will continue to (4) _______ change how we live and work, and how our societies operate. In what is now called the Fourth Industrial Revolution, technologies that are coming of age - including robotics, nanotechnology, virtual reality, 3D printing, the Internet of Things, artificial intelligence and advanced biology - will (5) _______. And as these technologies continue to be developed and widely adopted, they will bring about (6) _______ shifts in all disciplines, industries and economies, and in the way that we produce, distribute, consume and dispose of goods and services. These developments have provoked anxious questions about what role humans will play in a technology-driven world. A 2013 University of Oxford study estimates that (7) _______ half of all jobs in the United States could be lost to automation over the next two decades. On the other hand, economists such as Boston University's James Bessen argue that automation often goes (8) _______ with the creation of new jobs. So which is it - new jobs or massive structural unemployment? At this point, we can be certain that the Fourth Industrial Revolution will have a disruptive impact on employment, but no one can yet predict the scale of change. So, before we (9) _______ all the bad news, we should look at history, which suggests that technological change more often affects the nature of work, (10) _______ the opportunity to participate in work itself. (adapted from “Look to history to prepare for an automated future” by Johan Aurik, the Straitstimes) 1. A. gloss
B. blur
C. tamper
D. distort
2. A. creation of
B. addition to
C. introduction to
D. extraction to
3. A. bore
B. thunder
C. tsunami
D. quake
4. A. similarly
B. thoroughly
C. appositely
D. profoundly
5. A. converge
B. suppose
C. disperse
D. conclude
6. A. high
B. radical
C. extreme
D. severe
7. A. close to
B. proximity to
C. near
D. verge on
8. A. all in all
B. side by side
C. hand in hand
D. little by little
9. A. perpetual
B. swallow
C. expel
D. regurgitate
10. A. besides
B. except
C. due to
D. rather than
Your answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
Part 2: Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only one word in each space. Write your answers in the space provided. (1.5 pts.) BOOK SURGERY Before the days of digital storage files and the easy accessible of the internet, almost every family home boasted a (1) __________ of encyclopedias, a world atlas and a selection of other weighty tomes that (2) __________ as an invaluable source of reference. Although these hefty volumes have (3) __________ been rendered obsolete by ongoing technological advances, there is often a genuine reluctance to get (4) __________ of them. Those with attractive binding may find a new use as an (5) __________ design feature, but the rest are invariably consigned to otherwise empty bookshelves in dusty corners of spare bedrooms. The artist Brian Dettmer could, (6) __________, come to their rescue. He has come up with an ingenious way of giving such books a new (7) __________ of life. Using what he calls ‘book surgery’, Brian creates a sculpture out of (8) __________ redundant volume. After sealing the edges of the book, he painstakingly cuts into the surface to create intricate patterns (9) __________ 3D. He never adds anything to his creations, however, for the skill (10) __________ both in making precise incisions and in knowing exactly how much material to take away. Part 3: Read the following passage and choose the best answer. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (1.0 pt) The craft of perfumery has an ancient and global heritage. The art flourished in Ancient Rome, where the emperors were said to bathe in scent. After the fall of Rome, much of the knowledge was lost, but survived in Islamic civilizations in the Middle Ages. Arab and Persian pharmacists developed essential oils from the aromatic plants of the Indian peninsula. They developed the processes of distillation and suspension in alcohol, which allowed for smaller amounts of raw materials to be used than in the ancient process, by which flower petals were soaked in warm oil. This knowledge was carried back to European monasteries during the Crusades. At first, the use of fragrances was primarily associated with healing. Aromatic alcoholic waters were ingested as well as used externally. Fragrances were used to purify the air, both for spiritual and health purposes. During the Black Death, the bubonic plague was thought to have resulted from a bad odour which could be averted by inhaling pleasant fragrances such as cinnamon. The Black Death led to an aversion to using water for washing, and so perfume was commonly used as a cleaning agent. Later on, the craft of perfume re-entered Europe, and was centred in Venice, chiefly because it was an important trade route and a centre for glass-making. Having such materials at hand was essential for
the distillation process. In the late seventeenth century, trade soared in France, when Louis XIV brought in policies of protectionism and patronage which stimulated the purchase of luxury goods. Here, perfumery was the preserve of glove-makers. The link arose since the tanning of leather required putrid substances. Consequently, the gloves were scented before they were sold and worn. A glove and perfume makers‘ guild had existed here since 1190. Entering it required 7 years of formal training under a master perfumer. The trade in perfume flourished during the reign of Louis XV, as the master glove-and-perfume makers, particularly those trading in Paris, received patronage from the royal court, where it is said that a different perfume was used each week. The perfumers diversified into other cosmetics including soaps, powders, white face paints and hair dyes. They were not the sole sellers of beauty products. Mercers, spicers, vinegar-makers and wig-makers were all cashing in on the popularity of perfumed products. Even simple shopkeepers were coming up with their own concoctions to sell. During the eighteenth century, more modern, capitalist perfume industry began to emerge, particularly in Britain where there was a flourishing consumer society. In France, the revolution initially disrupted the perfume trade due to its association with aristocracy, however, it regained momentum later as a wider range of markets were sought both in the domestic and overseas markets. The guild system was abolished in 1791, allowing new high-end perfumery shops to open in Paris. Perfume became less associated with health in 1810 with a Napoleonic ordinance which required perfumers to declare the ingredients of all products for internal consumption. Unwilling to divulge their secrets, traders concentrated on products for external use. Napoleon affected the industry in other ways too. With French ports blockaded by the British during the Napoleonic wars, the London perfumers were able to dominate the markets for some time. One of the significant changes in the nineteenth century was the idea of branding. Until then, trademarks had had little significance in the perfumery where goods were consumed locally, although they had a long history in other industries. One of the pioneers in this field was Rimmel who was nationalized as a British citizen in 1857. He took advantage of the spread of railroads to reach customers in wider markets. To do this, he built a brand which conveyed prestige and quality, and were worth paying a premium for. He recognised the role of design in enhancing the value of his products, hiring a French lithographer to create the labels for his perfume bottles. Luxury fragrances were strongly associated with the affluent and prestigious cities of London and Paris. Perfumers elsewhere tended to supply cheaper products and knock-offs of the London and Paris brands. The United States perfume industry, which developed around the docks in New York where French oils were being imported, began in this way. Many American firms were founded by immigrants, such as William Colgate, who arrived in 1806. At this time, Colgate was chiefly known as a perfumery. Its Cashmere Bouquet brand had 625 perfume varieties in the early 20th century. 1. The purpose of the text is to
A. compare the perfumes from different countries. B. describe the history of perfume making. C. describe the problems faced by perfumers. D. explain the different uses of perfume over time. 2. Which of the following is NOT true about perfume making in Islamic countries? A. They created perfume by soaking flower petals in oil. B. They dominated perfume making after the fall of the Roman Empire. C. They took raw materials for their perfumes from India. D. They created a technique which required fewer plant materials. 3. Why does the writer include this sentence in paragraph 2? During the Black Death, the bubonic plague was thought to have resulted from a bad odour which could be averted by inhaling pleasant fragrances such as cinnamon. A. To explain why washing was not popular during the Black Death. B. To show how improper use of perfume caused widespread disease. C. To illustrate how perfumes used to be ingested to treat disease. D. To give an example of how fragrances were used for health purposes. 4. Why did the perfume industry develop in Paris? A. Because it was an important trade route. B. Because of the rise in the glove-making industry. C. Because of the introduction of new trade laws. D. Because of a new fashion in scented gloves. 5. What does the word “putrid” in paragraph 3 mean? A. Bad-smelling
B. Rare
C. Prestigious
D. Numerous
6. Which of the following people most influenced the decline of perfumes as medicine? A. Louis XIV
B. Louis XV
C. Rimmel
7. In paragraph 4, it is implied that A. master glove and perfume makers created a new perfume each week. B. the Royal Court only bought perfume from masters. C. mercers, spicers and other traders began to call themselves masters. D. cosmetics were still only popular within the Royal Courts. 8. How did the French Revolution affect the Parisian perfume industry? A. The industry declined then rose again. B. The industry collapsed and took a long time to recover. C. The industry was greatly boosted. D. The industry lost most of its overseas customers. 9. Which of the following is NOT true of Rimmel?
D. Napoleon
A. He was one of the first people to utilise trademarks. B. He created attractive packaging for his products. C. His products were more expensive than other brands. D. He transported his goods to potential customers by train. 10. What is implied about the New York perfume industry? A. It was the fastest-growing perfume industry in the world at that time. B. It was primarily developed by immigrants arriving from France. C. It copied luxury fragrances and sold them cheaply. D. There was a wider range of fragrances available here than elsewhere. Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
Part 4: Read the passage and do the tasks that follow. (1.0 pt) Choose the correct headings for paragraphs A-F from the list of headings below. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. A
The health benefit of legumes has been widely known for centuries. Also known as pulses or,
more commonly, beans, they belong to an extremely large category of vegetables, containing over 13,000 species. Only grains supply more calories and protein to the world’s population. Today, agricultural researchers and scientists are experimenting with varieties of legumes easier to harvest, more resistant to disease, and yield better crops. B
Beans are often referred to as “the poor person’s meat”, but this label is unfair – considering the
health benefits of legumes, they should really be called “the healthy alternative to meat”. Beans contain a rich and varied supply of nutritional substances, which are vital for keeping in good health. Diets rich in beans are used to help with a variety of health issues including lowering cholesterol levels, improving blood sugar control in diabetics, reducing the risk of many cancers, lowering the risk of heart disease, and lowering blood pressure. Beans are a good source of protein but are often considered to be an “incomplete” protein as they lack the essential amino acids that we need to complete our diet. Foods from animals, on the other hand, contain protein and amino acids. However, many cultures combine beans with grains to form a complete protein that is a high-quality substitute for meat – rice and soya in Japan, corn and beans in Mexico, rice and lentils in the Middle East. Beans are also a good source of fiber, giving the consumer between 5 and 8.6 grams of fiber per 100 grams eaten. Fiber is an important ingredient in a healthy diet with great benefits to our digestive system and in reducing cholesterol levels, which in turn reduces our risk of heart disease. Fiber also helps us to feel full and control our appetite. C
Why is it important to substitute meat as much as possible? First of all, because of the health
implications – red meat in particular has a high-fat content. Secondly, antibiotics and other chemicals are used in the raising of poultry and cattle. Thirdly, the cost to the environment is much greater in raising
cattle than it is in growing crops. To produce a kilogram of beef, farmers need to feed to cow 15 kilograms of grain and a further 30 kilograms of forage. D
Little wonder then that legumes have been used from ancient times. According to Trevor Brice in
Life and Society in the Hittite World, the Hittites, an ancient people living in Anatolia from the eighteenth century BC, ate a wide variety of legumes including peas, beans, faba beans, chickpeas, and lentils. And in ancient Egypt, Ramses II is known to have offered 11,998 jars of beans to the god of the Nile. Archaeologists have found the remains of legumes on land beneath Lake Assad in Syria dating back to 8000BC and astonishingly, a 4,000-year-old lentil seed found during an excavation in Turkey has been germinated, allowing scientists to compare the ancient variety with the organic and genetically engineered varieties of today. Professor Nejat Bilgen from Dumlupinar University, who led the archaeological team, said that the lentils were found in a container dating from the Bronze Age. The plant grown from the ancient lentil was found to be “pretty weak” in comparison with modern varieties. E
Modern agricultural research has tended to focus on grain production, breeding new varieties of
wheat and other crops rather than improving the varieties of legumes, which can suffer from low yields and unstable harvests. For this reason, farmers started to abandon them in favor of more dependable crops, which had had the benefits of scientific improvement. Recently, scientists have returned to legumes to identify desirable characteristics such as height, good crop production, and resistance to pests in order to cross different plants with each other and produce a new, improved variety. Using pests in order to cross different plants with each other and produce a new, improved variety. Using traditional breeding methods, agricultural scientists are transforming the faba bean into a variety that is easier to grow. Traditional varieties are undependable as they rely on insects to pollinate them. But faba bean types that can self-fertilize naturally were discovered, and this gene is being bred into new varieties. Other faba bean varieties have been found to produce higher yields or shorter crops. Faba bean plants end in a lower – this means that more of the plant’s energy is transformed into producing beans instead of unusable foliage, F
With the new varieties, farmers in some regions are achieving a marked rise in production –
between 10% to 20% improvement. Scientists have also managed to develop a commercial faba bean able to resist the parasitic weed Orobanche, which has been known to destroy whole fields of the crop. The future of legumes and the farmers who grow them is becoming brighter. Legumes are an important source of nourishment for humans and also for the soil: the beans take nitrogen directly from the atmosphere and fix it into the soil to provide nutrients for other crops and save the farmers the cost of artificial fertilizer. Making legumes a profitable crop for the future may prove an essential factor in feeding growing populations. Choose the correct headings for paragraphs A-F from the list of heading below. List of headings
i Improvements to faba bean farming
1. Paragraph A
___________
ii Increasing productivity to secure the future of legume
2. Paragraph B
farming
____________
iii The importance of legumes
3. Paragraph C
___________
iv The nutritional value of legumes
4. Paragraph D
___________
v The effect of farming on the environment
Paragraph E-i
vi Legumes in the diet of ancient peoples
5. Paragraph F
vii The importance of reducing meat consumption
____________
viii Archaeological discoveries Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer in Reading Passage? In boxes 6-10, write YES if the statement agrees with the views of the writer NO if the statement contradicts the views of the writer NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this 6. Legumes are second to grains in providing people with calories and protein. 7. Beans can help to cure heart disease. 8. Scientists have the opportunity to see how similar modern and ancient lentil plants are. 9. Agricultural scientists are making the faba bean easier to grow in dry areas. 10. New varieties of faba bean can destroy parasitic weeds. Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
Part 5. Read the text, identify which section A–F each of the following is mentioned. Write ONE letter A–D in the corresponding numbered space provided. Each letter may be used more than once. (1.5 pts)
THE SOCIAL PHENOMENON THAT IS FASHION A
Each day as we prepare to meet our world we perform a very popular ritual: getting dressed. This
may mean only adding a daub of war paint or freshening a grass girdle. Or it may be the painstaking ceremonious robing of a monarch. For most of us, however, it means the exchange of nightwear for day clothes. Although nakedness does still exist in some isolated communities, there appears to be no society that is entirely composed of totally unadorned human beings. The desire to alter or to add to the original natural state is so prevalent in the human species that we must assume it has become an inborn human trait. When did it begin? It certainly precedes recorded history. Bodily covering was probably the first man-made shelter and the human skin the earliest canvas. Standing erect with his arms and hands free to
function creatively, man must have soon discovered that his anatomical frame could accommodate a wide variety of physical self-improvements. His shoulders could support a mantle to protect him from the elements. To stand out above his peers and indicate his superior position, he found his head could be excellent foundation for adding stature and importance. Intertwined with these motivating factors and building on them was the human instinct for creative expression, an outlet for aesthetic spirit. B
Changes in needs and outlooks often blur the purposes that originally gave articles of human
raiment a raison d’être. Vestiges are relegated to tradition; others undergo a kind of mutation. The sheltering mantle, for example, can become a magnificent but cumbersome robe of state. Amulets, their symbolism lost or forgotten, become objects of decoration to show off the wearer’s wealth. Man is a gregarious creature. And although innovations and changes may be initiated by individuals, the inspiration that triggers them grows out of the innovator’s environment, and their acceptance or rejection is determined by his society. Nothing so graphically reflects social and cultural patterns as the manner in which individuals within a society alter their original appearance. C
Fashion can be a powerful force. Societies evolve for themselves a set of rules, and most people,
consciously or subconsciously, do their best to conform. The nonconformists, those who do not wish to join in this game, must either sever their relationship and go it alone or suffer the consequences. These regulations are hardly capricious. Their roots are in the foundation of a society which, although composed of individuals, develops an identity of its own and an instinct for self-preservation. A hom*ogeneity in dress is a manifest catalyst, a visible unifier of a social group. Because this is so, costume if read properly can give us an insight not only into the class structure of a social organization but also into its religion and aesthetics, its fears, hopes and goals. Today our clothes continue to reflect our anxieties and how we try to cope with them. Our society is rapidly becoming global. The recent worldwide rage for jeans is an example of this new universality and the wholesale movement to break down past barriers – geographical and social. D
“Fashion is the mirror of history,” King Louis XIV of France correctly observed. But if one were
to transpose a fashion into another era, it would be unlikely to make sense. How, for example, could an Amazonian Indian or a Roman senator rationalize a hoop skirt, a starched ruff, or a powdered wig? Yet scrutinized through the specialist’s lens, such vagaries of dress can help chart the course of social mores, moral codes, the march of science and the progress of the arts. This would explain why the genealogy of clothes receives the rapt attention of the psychologist, sociologist, economist, anthropologist and art historian, each posing the same question: “Why do people wear what they wear?” Why, indeed, have human beings chosen to transform themselves so astonishingly? For the sake of the flesh or the spirit? For themselves and their own inquisitive nature or for the eyes of beholders? What has driven them? Ambition? Fear? Humility? There is and can be no single adequate response.
Which section
explains why non-mainstream fashion risks the possibility of social
Your answers
1. ________
disapproval? makes the point that fashion cannot be taken out of its historical context?
2. ________
suggests a temporal link between wearing clothes and painting the body?
3. ________
explains that certain clothes eventually become recognized as merely of
4. ________
historical interest? suggests that someone might dress in a particular way in order not to attact
5. ________
attention? suggests that clothes could be used to assert social standing?
6. ________
mentions a fashion item which reflects a trend in society?
7. ________
mentions clothes being put on in a very elaborate manner?
8. ________
mentions satisfying one’s own curiosity as a positive motive for dressing in
9. ________
unusual way? offers an explanation for the way in which dress codes originate?
10. ________
D. WRITING (6.0 pts) Part 2: Chart description (1.5 pts) The pie graphs below show the result of a survey of children's activities. The first graph shows the cultural and leisure activities that boys participate in, whereas the second graph shows the activities in which the girls participate. Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make comparisons where relevant.Your writing should be at least 150 words.
23. I.
CHUYÊN LÊ QUÝ ĐÔN - QUẢNG TRỊ LISTENING
Part 1.You will hear Alice Brown interviewing Professor Robert Atkins about health scares. For questions 1-5, choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear) 1 How does Professor Atkins feel about the frequency of health scares in the media? A irritated that the media print nonsense B reconciled to health scares being a necessary evil C resigned to the media misunderstanding science D worried that the health scares might be real 2 What is Alice's attitude to the threat of lethal diseases? A She worries that new ones will occur. B She is doubtful that they can be contained. C She is concerned that they are spread more easily today. D She believes they pose less of a danger today. 3 Professor Atkins believes that the concerns people have today arise from A a lack of spiritual belief B being misled by scientists and doctors. C bewilderment when their assumptions are challenged. D worry about how diseases are communicated. 4 What do Alice and Professor Atkins agree about when it comes to health scares? A some businesses have a vested interest in promoting them B some manufacturers see them as the best form of publicity C some doctors are at fault for not criticising them sufficiently D some researchers are looking for publicity 5 What worries Professor Atkins about health scares? A They could lead to people taking too many pills. B They are more damaging than real diseases. C They might make people disregard potential risks. D They are difficult to disprove. Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Part 2: Listen to a lecture and decide whether the statements are true or false. Write T for true and F for false in the corresponding numbered boxes. 1.American scientists launched the first man-made satellite in human history, Spunik, into space on February 1st , 1958. 2.Deposites of minerals, oil and natural gas could be found by scientists through using of satellites. 3.Television programs could not be seen simultaneously all over the world without the use of satellites. 4.American space shuttle Challenger exploded during a mission in January 1986, killing seven astronauts; only one survived. 5.ESA, built by ten European countries together, launched their first rocket, the Arian L3S, in 1979. Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Part 3: Listen and write short answers to the questions( WRITE NO MORE THAN 5 WORDS)
1. Why should people try to resolve their problems first before consulting lawyers? ………………………………………………………………………. 2. What is the most common cause of conflicts among neighbours? ………………………………………………………………………. 3. Which type of accommodation usually causes its residents parking problems? …………………………………………………………………… 4. Who should you ring to enquire about your neighbour’s planning permission? …………………………………………………………………….. 5. What does ASBO stand for? ……………………………………………………………………… Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
II. LEXICO- GRAMMAR Part 1: Choose the best answer (A,B, C, or D) to each of the following questions and write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. 1 ‘You won’t get away with this!’ the old woman ____ angrily. A chirped B hooted C screeched D croaked 2 I'm afraid the problem _____ from his inability to work with others. A roots B curbs C stems D sparks 3 I was puzzled by his ______ reply to my innocent question. A clement B wayward C indolent D indignant 4 A good advertisem*nt should _____ the attention of its target audience immediately. A take in B capture C sustain D amount to 5 We woke up at the ____ of dawn this morning. A touch B turn C burst D crack 6 Her poems began to reveal her growing dissatisfaction with her ______ existence. A charitable B magnanimous C wholesome D humdrum 7 Woken up suddenly by the explosion, he _____ out of his tent, still half asleep. A waded B tramped C trudged D staggered 8 After their release, the hostages described the _____ they had been through. A epic B ordeal C burden D quest 9 “The President says the company is making more cars this year than last year.” “______ attribute the increase in productivity?” A Does he B What to C To what does he D What does he 10 "Why has Dave resigned his job?" "It was my suggestion _____ his education." A. why didn't he continue B. him to continue C. that he continue D. he continues Your answers: 1.
3.
5.
7.
9.
2.
4.
6.
8.
10.
Part 3: Fill in the gaps in the following sentences with suitable prepositions or articles. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.
1. My mum draws heavily ____________ her teaching experience each time she gives a presentation. 2. When Mark was offered a job with that company, he decided it was an opportunity he couldn’t pass _______. 3. It seems like we are ___________ a big storm this weekend. 4. She has been very busy this week, so she hasn’t got _________ calling her family yet. 5. The terrible service at the restaurant has put me__________ going there again. Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Part 4: Read the text below. Use the word given in capitals to form a word that fits in the gap. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.(0) has been done as an example. Social networking is here to stay and (1. ACT) __________ between people all over the world has never been (2. EASE) __________. We can share our lives with our network friends who can help us solve problems or offer advice. Although these sites can act as a kind of group therapy session with people who seem to care and who will listen, there is little or no (3. CENSOR) __________ , so cyber-bullying is a growing problem. Perhaps there need to be more (4. CONSTRAIN) __________ on what people are allowed to say. Nevertheless, social networking sites can be a great way to find people with shared interests and they can also be very (5. INFORM) __________ if used wisely. For many people, it offers them a feeling of (6. ESCAPE) __________ from the real world. Furthermore it gives them a chance to chat about anything and everything, often quite (7. MEAN) __________ , without fear of being rejected by others. Whatever the drivers, it has become a (8. COMPEL) __________ activity for many, so it is hardly surprising that some people feel a sense of (9. CONNECT) __________ if they are unable to get online for any period of time. And when they do get back online after a few hours of downtime, there is an (10. MISTAKE) __________ feeling of relief at being a part of the world once more. Your answers: 1.
3.
5.
7.
9.
2.
4.
6.
8.
10.
III. READING Part 1: Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap. Write your answer in the corresponding numbered box. (0) has been done as an example.
A CHANGE OF MOOD Most of us (0) _________ our moods as being rather like the weather – it is something that colours the whole day, comes from somewhere else and over which we have little (1) _________ . Not that there isn’t a range of folk (2) _________ for dealing with a bad one: ‘Just snap out of it. Talk to a friend- a problem (3) _________ is a problem halved. Pamper yourself. ’ The problem is, as the latest American research (4) _________, as these favourite mood-swinging ploys are very ineffective. In his new book, Robert Thayer, professor of psychology at California State University, puts forward a new theory about what to do to change our moods and why. There are a few surprises. For instance, men, contrary to popular opinion, are actually better at dealing with their moods than women. Not only that, but the time-honoured female techniques of (5) _________ it all out to a friend or (6) _________ a good cry are often a waste of time. His approach makes it possible to forecast moods and be much more precise about controlling them. For instance, we all have a daily energy rhythm- on average, we start low, build up to a (7) _________ around midday, dip down, pick up a bit in the late afternoon and then tail off towards the evening. So,
because of the link between energy levels and mood, we can predict that an (8) _________ in tension will produce a more gloomy (9) _________ at those times of the day when our energy regularly takes a dip. Knowing that, you can take it into (10) _________. 1. A. regard B. take C. think D. assume 1. A. selection B. ability C. decision D. control 2. A. remedies B. medicines C. solutions D. treatments 3. A. distributed B. spread C. divided D. shared 4. A. informs B. reveals C. exposes D. discovers 5. A. pouring B. draining C. dropping D. spilling 6. A. giving B. doing C. having D. making 7. A. point B. height C. peak D. limit 8. A. addition B. improvement C. enlargement D. increase 9. A. vision B. outlook C. aspect D. review 10. A. attention B. mind C. account D. notice Your answers: 1.
3.
5.
7.
9.
2.
4.
6.
8.
10.
Part 2. For questions 1-10, fill each of the following numbered blanks with ONE suitable word. Today the notion of “suitable clothing” is dying (0) ...out….. It would now appear that, to all (1) _________ and purposes, anything goes. At one (2) _________, it was possible to (3) _________ at a glance the difference between someone dressed for work and someone en route to a nightclub. And, (4) _________ to say, the same clothes would never have been worn to both. However, in the last thirty years, we have undergone a sea of change in our ideas of what a dress code consists of. Even well (5) _________ the 1960s, male air travellers were expected to wear a suit; these days it would come as no surprise to find them in shorts and trainers . In fact, (6) _________ has been the revolution in our own dress codes that we may find ourselves dressing down to go to work and dressing (7) _________ to go out in the evening . That (8) _________ said , there are occasions, a wedding or a funeral, for example, (9) _________only certain clothes will (10) _________. Your answers: 1.
3.
5.
7.
9.
2.
4.
6.
8.
10.
Part 3. Read the passage and answer the questions that follow. The man and woman stood and stared silently at products on opposite sides of the aisle of a national chain store. Completely engrossed in the objects of their attention—for the man, razorblades, for the woman, dental care products—they were oblivious to several customers, who, having rounded the corner, started down the aisle and then changed their minds. Had they proceeded down that aisle, they would have recognized the slightly pained expression on the man’s face and the aura of bewilderment that portrayed a feeling of being overwhelmed. Who hasn’t caused a traffic jam in the snack food or the cereal aisle? Crackers may be thin, Bavarian, fat-free, covered in peanut butter, large, small, round, square, or even sticks. The correct choice takes time and concentration. Toothpaste varieties include baking soda and peroxide, added mouthwash, or whitening, and can be regular, mint, or for sensitive teeth. Each touts its own specific benefits. But has the plethora of choices improved the quality of life or impacted retail profits in the form of increased sales? Information emerging from research conducted by various retailers may offer an
interesting answer, indicating that there is a fine line between enough and too much when it comes to choices. When customers at a supermarket were invited to sample 21 different types of crackers, all produced under one brand name, and were then given a coupon to apply to a purchase of any one of the cracker types, no one purchased any. However, at another store, when customers were offered seven crackers to sample, they used the coupon and purchased one of the cracker types. While the research is far from exhaustive, it does provide some evidence to support the concept that when too many factors need to be considered in making a decision, confusion results. Sorting through many options requires time to make multiple decisions. Frequently, when faced with spending time deciding on a product that is not an immediate need, people find it easier to avoid the decision and move to the next aisle and the next item on their shopping list, rather than spend time contemplating all the options. People also may find it easier to shop at larger stores, where they can purchase multiple types of products, rather than smaller stores, where there are fewer choices available. And, as people continue to feel pressured for time, they will be less willing to process an array of subtle differences to buy a tube of toothpaste. A major chain in the US recently began selling groceries in all of its stores, which previously carried only clothing, furniture, and other household items. However, rather than expand the buildings, the stores were remodeled to accommodate space for the grocery sections. As a result, one noticeable difference, besides the added grocery aisles, was a much smaller personal care section with far less variety within brands. The projection is that the sales volumes for personal care products will remain the same, but that manufacturers may respond to the change by adjusting the variety of products. 1. How does the first paragraph describe shopping? A. as a pleasant experience B. as a confusing experience C. as a convenient experience D. as an expensive experience 2. What is a likely cause of a traffic jam in line 7? A. store clerks stocking shelves B. an argument between a man and a woman C. a cleanup of a spill on the floor D. shoppers deciding what to buy 3. Why does the author mention toothpaste in the second paragraph? A. People frequently buy the wrong kind of toothpaste. B. There are fewer types of toothpaste than crackers available. C. It is a product that comes in many varieties. D. Each type has unique advantages. 4. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the highlighted word plethora ? A. shortage B. decline C. basics D. excess 5. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the highlighted expression “there is a fine line” in line 14? A. Stores should offer discounts discriminately. B. Stores should focus on quality rather than quantity. C. Stores should value all customers equally. D. Stores should recognize that offering more can be a liability. 6. What inferences did researchers draw from the example of the cracker tasting? A. There was little difference in how the 21 crackers tasted. B. People have little time for participating in taste tests. C. Too many choices may decrease consumers’ interest in a product. D. People consider the value of coupons before making a choice. 7. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the highlighted phrase to process an array of subtle differences? A. to evaluate many factors B. to give up choices C. to examine each product D. to determine the cost 8. How did a major retail store create space for a grocery section?
A. It increased the size of the store. B. It sold fewer types of groceries than larger stores. C. The aisles were made smaller. D. Product variety was limited. 9. What impact on the sale of personal care products was predicted after the addition of the grocery section? A. Sales were expected to increase. B. Sales would drop temporarily. C. Sales were expected to remain constant. D. Sales would drop without more choices. 10. How might retailers respond to the research presented in this article? A. by revising prices for certain products B. by offering fewer varieties of the same product C. by increasing the total number of products offered D. by developing improved versions of products Your answers: 1.
3.
5.
7.
9.
2.
4.
6.
8.
10.
Part 4. For questions 1-10, read the following passage and do the tasks that follow.
Gifted children and learning A Internationally, 'giftedness' is most frequently determined by a score on a general intelligence test, known as an IQ test, which is above a chosen cutoff point, usually at around the top 2-5%. Children's educational environment contributes to the IQ score and the way intelligence is used. For example, a very close positive relationship was found when children's IQ scores were compared with their home educational provision ( Freeman , 2010). The higher the children's IQ scores, especially over IQ 130, the better the quality of their educational backup, measured in terms of reported verbal interactions with parents, number of books and activities in their home etc. Because IQ tests are decidedly influenced by what the child has learned, they are to some extent measures of current achievement based on age norms; that is, how well the children have learned to manipulate their knowledge and knowhow within the terms of the test. The vocabulary aspect, for example, is dependent on having heard those words. But IQ tests can neither identify the processes of learning and thinking nor predict creativity. B Excellence does not emerge without appropriate help. To reach an exceptionally high standard in any area very able children need the means to learn, which includes material to work with and focused challenging tuition -and the encouragement to follow their dream. There appears to be a qualitative difference in the way the intellectually highly able think, compared with more average-ability or older pupils, for whom external regulation by the teacher often compensates for lack of internal regulation. To be at their most effective in their self-regulation, all children can be helped to identify their own ways of learning - metacognition - which will include strategies of planning, monitoring, evaluation, and choice of what to learn. Emotional awareness is also part of metacognition, so children should be helped to be aware of their feelings around the area to be learned, feelings of curiosity or confidence, for example. C High achievers have been found to use self-regulatory learning strategies more often and more effectively than lower achievers, and are better able to transfer these strategies to deal with unfamiliar tasks. This happens to such a high degree in some children that they appear to be demonstrating talent in particular areas. Overviewing research on the thinking process of highly able children, (Shore and Kanevsky , 1993) put the instructor's problem succinctly: ' If they [the gifted] merely think more quickly, then we need only teach more quickly. If they merely make fewer errors, then we can shorten the practice '. But of course, this is not entirely the case; adjustments have to be made in methods of learning and teaching, to take account of the many ways individuals think. D Yet in order to learn by themselves, the gifted do need some support from their teachers. Conversely, teachers who have a tendency to 'overdirect' can diminish their gifted pupils' learning
autonomy. Although 'spoon-feeding' can produce extremely high examination results, these are not always followed by equally impressive life successes. Too much dependence on the teachers risks loss of autonomy and motivation to discover. However, when teachers ask pupils to reflect on their own learning and thinking activities, they increase their pupils' self regulation. For a young child, it may be just the simple question 'What have you learned today?' which helps them to recognise what they are doing. Given that a fundamental goal of education is to transfer the control of learning from teachers to pupils, improving pupils' learning to learn techniques should be a major outcome of the school experience, especially for the highly competent. There are quite a number of new methods which can help, such as child initiated learning, ability-peer tutoring, etc. Such practices have been found to be particularly useful for bright children from deprived areas. E But scientific progress is not all theoretical, knowledge is a so vital to outstanding performance: individuals who know a great deal about a specific domain will achieve at a higher level than those who do not (Elshout , 1995). Research with creative scientists by Simonton (1988) brought him to the conclusion that above a certain high level, characteristics such as independence seemed to contribute more to reaching the highest levels of expertise than intellectual skills, due to the great demands of effort and time needed for learning and practice. Creativity in all forms can be seen as expertise se mixed with a high level of motivation (Weisberg, 1993). F To sum up, learning is affected by emotions of both the individual and significant others. Positive emotions facilitate the creative aspects of earning and negative emotions inhibit it. Fear, for example, can limit the development of curiosity, which is a strong force in scientific advance, because it motivates problem-solving behaviour. In Boekaerts' (1991) review of emotion the learning of very high IQ and highly achieving children, she found emotional forces in harness. They were not only curious, but often had a strong desire to control their environment, improve their learning efficiency and increase their own learning resources. Reading Passage 1 has six paragraphs, A-F. Which paragraph contains the following information? Write the correct letter, A-F, next to the number. You may use any letter more than once. 1. a reference to the influence of the domestic background on the gifted child. 2. reference to what can be lost if learners are given too much guidance. 3. examples of classroom techniques which favour socially-disadvantaged children. Look at the following statements (Questions 4-7) and the list of people below. Match each statement with the correct person or people, A-E. Write the correct letter, A-E, in boxes 4-7 on your answer sheet. 4 Less time can be spent on exercises with gifted pupils who produce accurate work. 5 Self-reliance is a valuable tool that helps gifted students reach their goals. 6 Gifted children know how to channel their feelings to assist their learning. 7 Really successful students have learnt a considerable amount about their subject. List of People A Freeman B Shore and Kanevsky C Elshout D Simonton E Boekaerts Questions 8-10: Complete the sentences below. Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer. 8 One study found a strong connection between children's IQ and the availability of ............... and ............... at home. 9 Children of average ability seem to need more direction from teachers because they do not have ............... 10 Meta-cognition involves children understanding their own learning strategies, as well as developing ...............
Part 5: You are going to read an extract from an article about paintings. For questions 1-10, choose from the sections (A-E). The sections may be chosen more than once. In which section are the following mentioned? the inscrutable nature of the subjects 1_________ the artist's ability to give an insight into temperament 2_________ the integrity of the image portrayed 3_________ the view that the artist was an innovator 4_________ delight in a painting's ability to endure 5_________ the background to a painting being well documented 6_________ the view that a painting's impact depends on its surroundings 7_________ a painting which gives an image of a lost world 8_________ admiration for an artist who dared to challenge conventional ideas 9_________ conflicting opinions about the subject of a painting 10_________ Paintings which inspire Art experts give their opinions A Luisa Sutton A Bar at the Folies-Bergere, by Edouard Manet Manet was inviting some kind of response in the way in which he presented women in his work and he succeeded in bridging the gap between classical traditions and painting modern life. Above all, I have tremendous respect for the fact that he was a breakthrough artist: a champion of realist modernism who was censured for breaking the mould. Through the medium of painting, Manet constantly reassessed the prevailing attitudes of the world he was living in. Today we are used to multiple perspective - seeing the same image from different angles. This was not so in Manet's time, and in this painting we see him crossing boundaries as he switches reality by employing a mirror to reflect his subjects. B Paul Harris Henry VII, 29 October 1505, by unknown artist Visually, this is a stunning portrait; Henry moves towards the viewer from the parapet wearing the red robes of Lancaster, his hands on the ledge. It is immediately exciting and emotive. Henry VII was on the lookout for a new bride and this was painted to be sent to the court of Maan, much as we would send a photo today. So the provenance is clear. Portraits of other English monarchs, Richard III in particular, are, in comparison, stiff and remote. Henry VII's portrait speaks in a very particular way. His eyes look at one. He is Renaissance Man but, at the same time one sees a shrewd, wise and wily man who, throughout his reign, managed to amass the fortune of the Tudor dynasty. C Tom Newa James V and I, 1618, by Paul Van Somer I used to work for an art handling company in New York, and I came to realise how wonderful paintings are as entities. Old paintings last for so long because of the materials used - the oil is so robust, it expands or contracts depending on the heat. They can be rolled up and taken around the world, they'll never die. This portrait, in particular, made a huge impression on me. Works of art often lose their power as soon as they're placed in a museum. This painting is where it belongs - in a palace. Subject to who you speak to, James is either a buffoon or a tactical genius, but in this work he looks so stately. The painting was clearly commissioned to convey regality - and it worked on me, 400 years later. D Paula Smith Mr and Mr Andrews, by Gainsborough I chose this painting as it has personal relevance for me. I grew up in my grandmother's house in London. She was an excellent copyist of Gainsborough. We had copies of all of his paintings, except for this one, which my grandmother didn't approve of. I've always found it incredibly beautiful though. The two figures in this wonderful painting have very enigmatic expressions. What are they up to? What are they thinking? And then what are we to make of the landscape? It's an agricultural scene, in the middle of the day, but there are no agricultural workers anywhere to be seen. Where on earth is everybody? What a strange atmosphere the place has, a long ago era that will never be recaptured. E Lynn D'Anton
An Old Woman Cooking Eggs, 1618, by Velazquez What is most striking about this painting is surely its veracity. One gets the feeling that one is looking into a room in which there are no obstacles to understanding. Nothing comes between the subject and the observer. The artist here is the perfect observer. When I saw it a few years ago in the National Gallery of Scotland, set alongside many other works from Velazquez's youth, there was no doubt in my mind that it was a masterpiece. I think that it is easy for many people to empathise with this painting in one way or another. IV. WRITING (6ps) Part 2: The graph and table below give information about water use worldwide and water consumption in two different countries. Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make comparisons where relevant. Write at least 150 words. (1,5ps)
Country
Population
Irrigated land
Water consumption per person
Brazil
176 million
26,500 km²
359 m³
Democratic Republic of Congo
5.2 million
100 km²
8 m³
Part 3: Write an essay about the following topic: Popular events like the football World Cup and other international sporting occasions are essential in easing international tensions and releasing patriotic emotions in a safe way. To what extent do you agree or disagree with this opinion? Give reasons and relevant examples to illustrate your points.
24.
CHUYÊN CHU VĂN AN - HÀ NỘI
PART 2. Read the statements, listen and decide whether they are true (T) or false (F). 1. The speaker has come from the Theosophical Society. 2. One of the main points of the talk is to save money. 3. He thinks students should do more housework. 4. He argues that plastic containers won't biodegrade quickly. 5. He warns that asthma sufferers should be careful with her recipes. PART 3. Answer the questions (no more than 5 words). 1. How many bedrooms does Charlotte want? ................................................................................................................. 2. How much per week is Charlotte planning to spend on rent? ................................................................................................................. 3. Which room does Charlotte want partially furnished? ................................................................................................................. 4. What would Charlotte be responsible for if she rented an apartment with a garden? ................................................................................................................. 5. What commission does Anglian Estates charge for arranging an apartment rental? ................................................................................................................. II. GRAMMAR AND LEXICOLOGY (30 points) 1. Choose the best answer 1. The baby gurgled happily and then _________ down its bib. A. slavered
B. snivelled
C. drivelled
D. dribbled
2. Poor Mary, all her colleagues teased her; she was the _________ of all their jokes. A. outlet
B. brunt
C. butt
D. fob
3. The Minister was trying to avoid publicity so he kept _________. A. near the ground
B. under cover
C. a low profile
D. out of favour
4. Sociologists say that element of violence is __________ in all societies. A. latent
B. skulking
C. passive
D. potential
5. They were so taken aback by the outcome of their plan that they stood _________ to the floor in surprise. A. rooted
B. entrenched
C. stuck
D. earthed
6. The prisoner was released from gaol when it was discovered that there had been a __________ of justice. A. mishap
B. miscarriage
C. mistake
D. misdemeanor
7. I do wish you would stop cracking your fingers; it ______ my teeth on edge. A. gets
B. makes
C. puts
D. sets
8. We were _________ on the island until the tide went out and we could use the causeway. A. deserted
B. marooned
C. abandoned
D. jettisoned
9. Owing to the heavy traffic on the road to the airport, it was ________ whether we would be in time to catch our plane. A. win or lose
B. touch and go
C. come and go
D. on and off
10. Our hotel room was surprisingly _________, especially taking into consideration that it was very reasonably priced. A. decadent
B. languid
C. commodious
D. vivacious
Your answers 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
3. Fill a preposition into each gap 1. We will have to mark ________ these old books if we want to sell them quickly. 2. I'm not owning ________ to anything I didn't do! I'm innocent. 3. Why are you trying to pass ________ that man as your boss? You don't even know him! 4. My laptop is playing ________ again. I only bought it a few months ago! 5. With new investment, we can turn this company ________ . Your answers 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
4. Complete the passage with appropriate form of each word chosen from the given ones in the box. 1.
2. MOST
3. EMERGE
4. NUMERATE
5. EQUATE
9.
10.
SOPHISTICATION
CULTIVATE
ASTRONOMY 6. EMPHASIS
7. COMPARE 8. RUDIMENTS
Babylonian Astronomy Although the Babylonians did not contribute to cosmology, their astronomy is of great interest because the (1) .......... data they accumulated would later be of the (2) .... importance in the development of Greek geometric astronomy and cosmology. The
(3) ... of Babylonian astronomy was preceded many
centuries earlier by the appearance of a very advanced mathematics, documented in cuneiform clay tablets dating back to 1700 B.C. and earlier. This mathematics was based on a base-60 positional (4) ...
system and contained solutions to quadratic (5) ... and algorithms to compute the square roots of numbers. Although there was some interest in geometry, the Babylonians (6) ... the arithmetic and algebraic parts of mathematics. There was during this older period, (7) ... development of astronomy in even its most (8) ... empirical form. It was only much later, beginning around 600 B.C. that a (9).... numerical astronomy was (10)....... III. READING (60 points) 1. From the words listed below, choose the one which best fits the space, A, B, C or D. The knowledge and eloquence that people (1)…through traveling is usually perceived as the best (2)…in life. It is the inquisitive human nature that (3)…people to seek (4)…experiences and to set out on an exploration trip. Those who travel frequently and to (5) ...places benefit from establishing new relationships and (6)…a better knowledge about other cultures and lifestyles. However, there is a (7)…of truth in the assumption that people are prone to (8)….clichés and unfounded prejudices about other nations and their characteristics. Sometimes, it is only the first-hand encounter that can help change the (9)...towards the so-called ‘inferior communities’. This direct contact with a different civilization enables travellers to (10)…their baseless assumptions and get acquainted with the real concept of life in all four corners of the globe. Beyond question, traveling facilities friendship and makes it easier for many individuals to acknowledge the true value of different traditions and customs. Yet, it does not always mean enjoyment. It may also involve coming close with the atrocities of real existence as well as becoming aware of the challenges and hardships that other people have to struggle with. Hence, a true voyage is the one with a good deal of experience to reminisce about, very often combined with exposure to abhorrent sights and incredible ordeals. The learning to be complete, thus, requires an ability to observe and analyse the surroundings, both their glamour and brutality. 1. A purchase
B exact
C gain
D nurture
2. A completion
B fulfillmen t
C conclusion
D resolution
3. A impels
B involves
C entails
D pursues
4. A thriving
B throbbing
C thwarting
D thrilling
5. A reverse
B averse
C diverse
D converse
6. A acquiring
B educating
C learning
D exacting
7. A speck
B grain
C scrap
D tip
8. A persevering
B cherishing
C indulging
D persisting
9. A prejudice
B manner
C outlook
D approach
10. A drop
B cease
C fail
D quit
Your answers 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
2. For questions 1–10, fill each of the following numbered spaces with ONE suitable word and write your answers in the corresponding boxes provided below the passage. Over the last hundred years, much of the art of using herbs in cooking and medicine has been lost, especially in industrialised societies. Until recently, few people in the crowded cities had the space to grow plants or vegetables, and so (1) _______ in the country did knowledge of herbs linger on. (2) _______ the advent of refrigeration, however, which meant that the strong smell of old meat no longer had to be disguised, and the appearance of packaged food and easily-available medicines, the growing of herbs declined rapidly. Nowadays, there is hardly anyone who does not have a small patch of garden, or a (3)_______ sill or balcony or balcony large enough for a pot or two of herbs. These facts, (4)_______ with the beginnings of a revolt (5) _______ standardised foods and perhaps also a mistrust of the (6) ________ effects of some of today's medicines, mean that herbs have taken (7) _______ a new popularity. The culinary uses of herbs are endless and they can be used (8) _____ good effect all year round, in dried form or cut fresh. (9) ______ aids to beauty and for medicinal (10) ______, there is now a vast range of available. Herbs are for all occasions and all seasons. Your answers 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
3. Read the following passage and choose the correct answer to each of the questions. PIAGET’S COGNITIVE DEVELOPMENT THEORY The famous Swiss psychologist Jean Piaget (1896-1980) proposed an important theory of cognitive development. Piaget’s theory states that children actively construct their understanding of the world and go through four stages of cognitive development. Two processes underlie this cognitive construction of the world: organization and adaptation. To make sense of our world, we organize our experiences. For example, we separate important ideas from less important ideas. We connect one idea to another. But not only do we organize our observations and experiences, we also adapt our thinking to include new ideas because additional information furthers understandings. Piaget (1954) believed that we adapt in two ways: assimilation and accommodation. €
Assimilation occurs when individuals incorporate new information into their existing
knowledge. Accommodation occurs when individuals adjust to new information. Consider a circ*mstance in which a 9-year-old girl is given a hammer and nails to hang a picture on the wall. She has never used a hammer, but from observation and vicarious experience she realizes that a hammer is an object to be held, that it is swung by the handle to hit the nail, and that it is usually swung a number of times. Recognizing each of these things, she fits her behavior into the information she already has (assimilation). However, the hammer is heavy, so she holds it near the top. She swings too hard and the
nail bends, so she adjusts the pressure of her strikes. These adjustments reveal her ability to alter slightly her conception of the world (accommodation). Piaget thought that assimilation and accommodation operate even in the very young infant’s life. Newborns reflexively suck everything that touches their lips (assimilation), but, after several months of experience, they construct their understanding of the world differently. Some objects, such as fingers and the mother’s breast, can be sucked, but others, such as fuzzy blankets, should not be sucked (accommodation). Piaget also believed that we go through four stages in understanding the world. Each of the stages is age-related and consists of disparage ways of thinking. Remember, it is the different way of understanding the world that makes one stage more advanced than another; knowing more information does not make the child’s thinking more advanced, in the Piagetian view. This is what Piaget meant when he said the child’s cognition is qualitatively different in one stage compared to another (Vidal, 2000). [A] What are Piaget’s four stages of cognitive development like? [B] The sensorimotor stage, which lasts from birth to about 2 years of age, is the first Piagetian stage. In this stage, infants construct an understanding of the world by coordinating sensory experiences (such as seeing and hearing) with physical, motoric actions—hence the term sensorimotor. [C] At the end of the stage, 2-year-olds have sophisticated sensorimotor patterns and are beginning to operate with primitive symbols. [D] [Paragraph 6] € The preoperational stage, which lasts from approximately 2 to 7 years of age, is the second Piagetian stage. In this stage, children begin to represent the world with words, images, and drawings. Symbolic thought goes beyond simple connections of sensory information and physical action. However, although preschool children can symbolically represent the world, according to Piaget, they still lack the ability to perform operations, the Piagetian term for internalized mental actions that allow children to do mentally what they previously did physically. [Paragraph 7] € The concrete operational stage, which lasts from approximately 7 to 11 years of age, is the third Piagetian stage. In this stage, children can perform operations, and logical reasoning replaces intuitive thought as long as reasoning can be applied to specific or concrete examples. For instance, concrete operational thinkers cannot imagine the steps necessary to complete an algebraic equation, which is too abstract for thinking at this stage of development. [Paragraph 8] € The formal operational stage, which appears between the ages of 11 and 15, is the fourth and final Piagetian stage. In this stage, individuals move beyond concrete experiences and think in abstract and more logical terms. As part of thinking more abstractly, adolescents develop images of ideal circ*mstances. They might think about what an ideal parent is like and compare their parents to this ideal standard. They begin to entertain possibilities for the future and are fascinated with what they can be. In solving problems, formal operational thinkers are more systematic, developing hypotheses about why something is happening the way it is, then testing these hypotheses in a deductive manner.
1. Which of the sentences below best expresses the information in the highlighted statement in the passage? The other choices change the meaning or leave out important information. A. Our new experiences require that we adjust in order to understand information that we have never seen. B. Understanding new ideas is easier if we include observations and personal experiences. We engage in both organization of what we see and experience and adaptation of novel C. ideas. D. Thinking must include direct observation and experiences in order to organize the information. 1. Why does the author mention a hammer in paragraph 2? A. To explain the concepts of assimilation and accommodation B.
To demonstrate how a 9-year-old girl responds to a new experience
C.
To prove that a young child cannot engage in problem solving
D.
To provide an example of the first stage of cognitive development
1.
The word disparage in the passage is closest in meaning to
A.
new
B.
simple
C.
different
D.
exact
1.
The word primitive in the passage is closest in meaning to
A.
limited
B.
basic
C.
proximal
D.
handy
1.
Based on the information in paragraph 6, which of the following best explains the term
“operations"? A.
symbolic thought
B.
mental actions
C.
physical activity
D.
abstract reasoning
1.
According to paragraph 7, why would a 10-year-old be unable to solve algebra problems?
A.
Algebra requires concrete operational thinking.
B.
A 10-year-old has not reached the formal operational stage.
C.
A child of 10 does not have logical reasoning abilities.
D.
An algebra problem has too many steps in order to solve it.
1.
In paragraph 8, the author mentions parents because
A.
teenagers are already thinking about their roles in the future
B.
parents are very important teachers during the final stage of development
C.
the comparison of real and ideal parents is an example of abstract thinking
D.
adolescents tend to be critical of their parents as part of their development
1.
What can be inferred from the passage about people who are older than 15 years of age?
A.
They must have completed all of Piaget’s stages of cognitive development.
B.
They are probably in the formal operational state of development.
C.
They have mastered deductive reasoning and are beginning to learn intuitively.
D.
They may still not be able to solve problems systematically.
1.
All of the following refer to Piaget’s theory EXCEPT
A.
Even very young infants may engage in constructing the way that they understand the world.
B.
Both assimilation and accommodation are processes that we can use to help us adapt to new
information. C.
When children learn more information, then their thinking is at a higher stage of development.
D.
Operations require a more advanced stage of development than symbolic representation.
1.
Look at the four squares [A], [B], [C] and [D] that show where the following sentence could
be inserted in the passage. At the beginning of this stage, newborns have little more than reflexive patterns with which to work. Where could the sentence best be added? A.
[A]
B.
[B]
C.
[C]
D.
[D]
Your answers 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
4. Read the passage and do the tasks below.
Bio-mimetic Design What has fins like a whale, skin like a lizard, and eyes like a moth? The future of engineering. Andrew Parker, an evolutionary biologist, knelt in the baking red sand of the Australian outback just south of Alice Springs and eased the right hind leg of a thorny devil into a dish of water. A “Its back is completely drenched!” Sure enough, after 30 seconds, water from the dish had picked up the lizard’s leg and was glistening all over its prickly hide. In a few seconds more the water reached its mouth, and the lizard began to smack its jaws with evident satisfaction. It was, in essence, drinking through its foot. Given more time, the thorny devil can perform this same conjuring trick on a patch of
damp sand – a vital competitive advantage in the desert. Parker had come here to discover precisely how it does this, not from purely biological interest, but with a concrete purpose in mind: to make a thorny-devil-inspired device that will help people collect lifesaving water in the desert. “The water’s spreading out incredibly fast!” he said, as drops from his eyedropper fell onto the lizard’s back and vanished, like magic. “Its skin is far more hydrophobic than I thought. There may well be hidden capillaries, channeling the water into the mouth.” B
Parker’s work is only a small part of an increasingly vigorous, global biomimetics movement.
Engineers in Bath, England, and West Chester, Pennsylvania, are pondering the bumps on the leading edges of humpback whale flukes to learn how to make airplane wings for more agile flight. In Berlin, Germany, the fingerlike primary feathers of raptors are inspiring engineers to develop wings that change shape aloft to reduce drag and increase fuel efficiency. Architects in Zimbabwe are studying how termites regulate temperature, humidity, and airflow in their mounds in order to build more comfortable buildings, while Japanese medical researchers are reducing the pain of an injection by using hypodermic needles edged with tiny serrations, like those on a mosquito’s proboscis, minimizing nerve stimulation. C Ronald Fearing, a professor of electrical engineering at the University of California, Berkeley, has taken on one of the biggest challenges of all: to create a miniature robotic fly that is swift, small, and maneuverable enough for use in surveillance or search-and-rescue operations. Fearing made his own, one of which he held up with tweezers for me to see, a gossamer wand some 11 millimeters long and not much thicker than a cat’s whisker. Fearing has been forced to manufacture many of the other minute components of his fly in the same way, using a micromachining laser and a rapid prototyping system that allows him to design his minuscule parts in a computer, automatically cut and cure them overnight, and assemble them by hand the next day under a microscope. D With the micro laser he cuts the fly’s wings out of a two-micron polyester sheet so delicate that it crumples if you breathe on it and must be reinforced with carbon-fiber spars. The wings on his current model flap at 275 times per second – faster than the insect’s own wings – and make the blowfly’s signature buzz. “Carbon fiber outperforms fly chitin,” he said, with a trace of self-satisfaction. He pointed out a protective plastic box on the lab bench, which contained the fly-bot itself, a delicate, origami-like framework of black carbon-fiber struts and hairlike wires that, not surprisingly, looks nothing like a real fly. A month later it achieved liftoff in a controlled flight on a boom.Fearing expects the fly-bot to hover in two or three years, and eventually to bank and dive with flylike virtuosity. E Stanford University roboticist Mark Cutkosky designed a gecko-insured climber that he christened Stickybot. In reality, gecko feet aren’t sticky – they’re dry and smooth to the touch – and owe their remarkable adhesion to some two billion spatula-tipped filaments per square centimeter on their toe pads, each filament only a hundred nanometers thick. These filaments are so small, in fact, that they interact at the molecular level with the surface on which the gecko walks, tapping into the low-level van der Waals
forces generated by molecules’ fleeting positive and negative charges, which pull any two adjacent objects together. To make the toe pads for Stickybot, Cutkosky and doctoral student Sangbae Kim, the robot’s lead designer, produced a urethane fabric with tiny bristles that end in 30-micrometer points. Though not as flexible or adherent as the gecko itself, they hold the 500-gram robot on a vertical surface. F Cutkosky endowed his robot with seven-segmented toes that drag and release just like the lizard’s, and a gecko-like stride that snugs it to the wall. He also crafted Stickybot’s legs and feet with a process he calls shape deposition manufacturing (SDM), which combines a range of metals, polymers, and fabrics to create the same smooth gradation from stiff to flexible that is present in the lizard’s limbs and absent in most man-made materials. SDM also allows him to embed actuators, sensors, and other specialized structures that make Stickybot climb better. Then he noticed in a paper on gecko anatomy that the lizard had branching tendons to distribute its weight evenly across the entire surface of its toes. Eureka.”When I saw that, I thought, wow, that’s great!” He subsequently embedded a branching polyester cloth “tendon” in his robot’s limbs to distribute its load in the same way. G Stickybot now walks up vertical surfaces of glass, plastic, and glazed ceramic tile, though it will be some time before it can keep up with a gecko. For the moment it can walk only on smooth surfaces, at a mere four centimeters per second, a fraction of the speed of its biological role model. The dry adhesive on Stickybot‘s toes isn’t self-cleaning like the lizard’s either, so it rapidly clogs with dirt. “There are a lot of things about the gecko that we simply had to ignore,” Cutkosky says. Still, a number of real-world applications are in the offing. The Department of Defense’s Defense Advanced Research Projects Agency (DARPA), which funds the project, has it in mind for surveillance: an automaton that could slink up a building and perch there for hours or days, monitoring the terrain below. Cutkosky hypothesizes a range of civilian uses. “I’m trying to get robots to go places where they’ve never gone before,” he told me. “I would like to see Stickybot have a real-world function, whether it’s a toy or another application. Sure, it would be great if it eventually has a lifesaving or humanitarian role…” H
For all the power of the biomimetics paradigm, and the brilliant people who practice it,
bio-inspiration has led to surprisingly few mass-produced products and arguably only one household word – Velcro, which was invented in 1948 by Swiss chemist George de Mestral, by copying the way co*ckleburs clung to his dog’s coat. In addition to Cutkosky‘s lab, five other high-powered research teams are currently trying to mimic gecko adhesion, and so far none has come close to matching the lizard’s strong, directional, self-cleaning grip. Likewise, scientists have yet to meaningfully re-create the abalone nanostructure that accounts for the strength of its shell, and several well-funded biotech companies have gone bankrupt trying to make artificial spider silk. Questions 1-5 Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage? In boxes 14-20 on your answer sheet, write TURE
if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE
if the statement contradicts the information
NOTGIVEN
if there is no information on this
1 Andrew Parker failed to make effective water device which can be used in desert. 2 Skin of lizard is easy to get wet when it contacts water. 3 Scientists apply inspiration from nature into many artificial engineering. 4 When gecko climbs downward, its feet release a certain kind of chemical to make them adhesive. 5 Famous cases stimulate a large number of successful products of biomimetics in real life. Questions 6-8 Filling the blanks below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER from the passage for each question of robot below. Ronald Fearing was required to fabricate tiny components for his robotic fly (6)……………………by specialized techniques. The robotic fly’s main structure outside is made of (7) …………………… and long and thin wires which make it unlike fly at all. Cutkosky applied an artificial material in Stickybot’s (8) …………………… as a tendon to split pressure like lizard’s does. Questions 9- 10 Fill the blanks below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER from the passage for each answer about facts of stickybot. 9 Stickybot’s feet doesn’t have …………………… function which makes it only be able to walk on smooth surface. 10 DARPA are planning to use stickybot for ……………………. . Your answers 1.
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5. You are going to read an article about footballer supporters. For questions 1 - 10, choose from the sections (A - D). The sections may be chosen more than once. In which section does the writer 1. ________
seek to account for a mismatch between level of support and achievement?
2. ________
find evidence of a parallel in a related activity?
3. ________
give the example of an individual who appears to conform to a common misconception?
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mention an individual who became disillusioned with football following a disclosure?
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outline evidence that contradicts a widely held assertion?
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point to likely explanations for changes of allegiance amongst football fans?
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provide an example of the broadening appeal of football generally?
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refer to some research that confirms the extent of one factor affecting fan loyalty?
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report a reluctance within football to confront certain issues?
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suggest that there has been relatively little research into a phenomenon he outlines? WHY WE STILL FOLLOW FOOTBALL?
A - Like a lot of people, I still remember the first football match I ever saw. It was in The Hague in 1979, and Den Haag beat Utrecht 3-1 . That day we discovered my brother needed glasses, because he couldn't read the scoreboard. Going to watch football is one of the comforting rituals that carry you through life. It's also one of the few pleasures that parents and children can share: in the stadium, everyone becomes nine years old again. To quote a poem by the Dutchman Henk Spaan, 'A stadium is a monument to the common man.' Nowadays, the common woman goes too. Yet this ritual is poorly understood. The sports economist Stefan Szymanski and I have just published a new version of our book Soccernomics and two questions we ask are: why exactly do people go to watch football? And what them stop? The great myth is that most spectators simply have to go; that they are helpless, lifelong fans of one club, bound to it by blood and soil. This myth was nicely worded by Charles Burgess, journalist and Carlisle United fan, 'There never was any choice. My dad took me ... to watch the derby match against Workington Town just after Christmas 41 years ago. I was hooked and have been ever since. My support has been about who we are and where we are from.' B - British fans, in particular, like to present themselves lifelong diehards, and some are. However, as Szymanski and I found, while studying 61 years of English football attendances, most aren't. Indeed very few take their seats year after year at the same club. Many change clubs. For instance, according to surveys earned out by the Sport+Markt consultancy, 90 percent of English fans of Chelsea in 2006 had not supported the club in 2003. Some fans move to another town and start watching their new local club, or start following the team their children like, or abandon football because they're too busy. The rnarketing expert Alan Tapp, studying a club in the English Midlands, found that fans who let their season-tickets lapse often had small children. Older people, with less complicated lives, tended to keep their seats. In other words, showing up year in, year out isn't a great marker of loyalty; rather, it's a good marker of age. Few English fans are lifelong diehards. But nor are most glory hunters, who only watch winning teams. C- Rather, we found that most spectators go to watch a plausible team playing locally in a comfortable, safe stadium - winning matters less to them than having a pleasant experience. Arsenal is the perfect example: when the 45 moved from Highbury to the Emirates, the larger new stadium filled, even though the team had stopped winning trophies. We know that hooliganism deters fans from going to football. But one thing deters them even more: match-fixing. If
people think that crooked players or referees have fixed results in advance, they will stop going. After Italy's Calciopoli bribery scandal broke in 2006, a Roman friend emailed me to say he was ' in a strange mood. It was all fake! ' He'd always thought he was watching reality, but it had just been a show. The economists Babatunde Buraimo, Giuseppe Migali and Rob Simmons showed in a recent paper that the five top-division clubs found guilty in Calciopoli subsequently saw their attendances slump. These teams lost perhaps a fifth more fans than 'innocent' clubs. D- That is ominous, because match-fixing is going global. The rise in online betting, especially in Asia, has made it more lucrative for gamblers to fix matches. Sometimes clubs secretly bet on themselves to lose. The economist Romesh Vaitilingam found a similar phenomenon in tennis, where players often bet on themselves to lose first-round matches, and then pull out, claiming to be injured. Match-fixing has pervaded football from Asia to Italy. Perhaps only a handful of leagues on earth remain immune, for now. Steven de Lil, the policeman in charge of fighting 'football fraud' in Belgium, told me it's very hard to catch match-fixers. Football is a closed world, and clubs rarely report wrongdoing, he said. What de Lil has seen influences the way he now watches football as a fan, 'I always have my suspicions. I go to see a good match, but pretty soon I'm thinking, "How can that be happening?''. Once most of us watch football like that, we'll stop watching. Your answers 1.
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